Monday, December 22, 2025

Very important for CIA Part 1 students.. Revise this before exam..

 Very Important...For CIA Part 1 Students..



Below is a high-yield, exam-oriented revision checklist for CIA Part 1 (Essentials of Internal Auditing) – New Syllabus 2025, structured exactly the way questions are tested.

Focus on bold points + traps + keywords for quick recall before the exam.

 

1️⃣ Foundations of Internal Auditing

Important Subtopics

Definition of Internal Auditing (IIA)

Purpose & value addition

Assurance vs Consulting services

Independence & objectivity

Points to Remember

Internal auditing = independent, objective assurance AND consulting

Objective: add value & improve operations

Assurance → evaluate evidence

Consulting → advisory, no assurance

Internal auditor cannot assume management responsibility

Independence → organizational, Objectivity → individual

Chief Audit Executive (CAE) reports functionally to the Board/Audit Committee

 

2️⃣ IIA Code of Ethics & Professionalism

Subtopics

Integrity

Objectivity

Confidentiality

Competency

Due professional care

Points to Remember

Integrity → honesty, diligence, responsibility

Objectivity → no bias, conflict of interest disclosure

Confidentiality → no personal gain from information

Competency → only accept work within skills

Due professional care ≠ guarantee of no errors

Negligence ≠ lack of due care (exam trap)

 

3️⃣ Independence & Objectivity (Heavy Exam Weight)

Subtopics

Organizational independence

Individual objectivity

Impairments (actual & perceived)

Points to Remember

Auditing area previously managed → 1-year cooling-off period

Assurance impairment → must disclose

Consulting impairment → may accept with safeguards

Reporting line to management alone = independence impaired

Independence applies to function, objectivity to auditor

 

4️⃣ Governance (Very High Yield)

Subtopics

Corporate governance

Roles of Board, Audit Committee, Management

Governance frameworks

Points to Remember

Board → oversight

Management → risk ownership

Internal audit → assurance on governance

Governance ensures: 

o Accountability

o Transparency

o Ethical culture

IA evaluates governance processes, does NOT own them

 

5️⃣ Risk Management (Most Tested Area)

Subtopics

Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)

Risk appetite & tolerance

Risk categories

Risk responses

Points to Remember

Risk = possibility of event affecting objectives

Risk components: 

o Inherent risk

o Residual risk

Risk responses: 

o Avoid

o Reduce

o Share

o Accept

Internal audit does NOT own risk

Risk appetite → level of risk organization is willing to accept

Risk tolerance → acceptable variation

 

6️⃣ Internal Control (Extremely Important)

Subtopics

COSO Framework

Control types

Control objectives

COSO Components (CRIME)

1. Control Environment

2. Risk Assessment

3. Control Activities

4. Information & Communication

5. Monitoring

Points to Remember

Preventive > Detective (exam preference)

Manual vs Automated controls

Key controls = controls that reduce significant risks

Segregation of duties

o Authorization

o Custody

o Recording

Compensating control used when segregation not possible

 

7️⃣ Fraud Risk & Ethics

Subtopics

Fraud triangle

Internal auditor role in fraud

Red flags

Points to Remember

Fraud Triangle: 

o Pressure

o Opportunity

o Rationalization

Internal auditor: 

o Not responsible for detecting all fraud

o Responsible for evaluating fraud risk

Management owns fraud prevention

Strong controls reduce opportunity

 

8️⃣ Assurance & Consulting Services

Subtopics

Types of engagements

Assurance levels

Consulting safeguards

Points to Remember

Assurance → independent assessment

Consulting → advisory, client retains responsibility

IA can perform consulting if objectivity maintained

Consulting may impair future assurance → disclose

 

9️⃣ Quality Assurance & Improvement Program (QAIP)

Subtopics

Internal assessments

External assessments

Continuous improvement

Points to Remember

Internal assessment → ongoing + periodic

External assessment → once every 5 years

Conducted by qualified, independent reviewer

Required to state “Conforms with IIA Standards”

 

πŸ”Ÿ Internal Audit Charter

Subtopics

Purpose

Authority

Responsibility

Points to Remember

Approved by Board/Audit Committee

Defines IA’s: 

o Access rights

o Scope

o Reporting lines

Charter supports independence

 

1️⃣1️⃣ Ethics, Compliance & Legal Considerations

Points to Remember

Compliance ≠ ethics

Ethical culture reduces fraud risk

IA evaluates compliance framework

Whistleblower mechanism = governance tool

 

1️⃣2️⃣ CAE Responsibilities (Frequently Tested)

Points to Remember

Develop risk-based audit plan

Communicate results to Board

Ensure IA independence

Coordinate with external auditors

Maintain QAIP

 

πŸ”‘ EXAM MEMORY TRIGGERS (MUST REMEMBER)

IA never owns risk

Management owns risk & controls

Board provides oversight

Objectivity = mindset

Independence = reporting structure

Preventive controls > Detective

Consulting ≠ assurance

 

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Below is a ONE-PAGE, LAST-DAY REVISION CHEAT SHEET for CIA Part 1 – New Syllabus 2025

πŸ‘‰ Read this 2–3 times before exam. Covers maximum scoring + traps.

 

πŸ“˜ CIA PART 1 – LAST DAY REVISION (ONE PAGE)

 

πŸ”Ή Internal Auditing – Core

Independent, objective assurance + consulting

Purpose → add value & improve operations

Assurance = opinion, Consulting = advice

IA never assumes management responsibility

CAE reports functionally to Board/Audit Committee

 

πŸ”Ή Independence vs Objectivity (VERY HIGH WEIGHT)

Independence → organizational

Objectivity → individual mindset

Audited area previously managed → 1-year cooling-off

Impairment: 

o Assurance → must disclose

o Consulting → safeguards allowed

Reporting only to management = ❌ independence

 

πŸ”Ή Code of Ethics (IIOC)

Integrity → honest, diligent

Objectivity → no bias / disclose conflict

Confidentiality → no misuse of info

Competency → only skilled work

Due professional care ≠ zero errors

 

πŸ”Ή Governance

Board → oversight

Management → owns risk & controls

Internal audit → assurance on governance

Good governance = accountability + transparency + ethics

 

πŸ”Ή Risk Management (TOP EXAM AREA)

Risk = event affecting objectives

Risk levels: 

o Inherent risk

o Residual risk

Risk responses: 

o Avoid

o Reduce

o Share

o Accept

IA never owns risk

Risk appetite > Risk tolerance

 

πŸ”Ή Internal Control (COSO = CRIME)

1. Control Environment

2. Risk Assessment

3. Control Activities

4. Information & Communication

5. Monitoring

Control Facts

Preventive > Detective

Manual vs Automated

Segregation of duties: 

o Authorization

o Custody

o Recording

Compensating control if segregation impossible

 

πŸ”Ή Fraud & Ethics

Fraud Triangle: 

o Pressure

o Opportunity

o Rationalization

Management → fraud prevention

IA → evaluate fraud risk (NOT detect all fraud)

Strong controls reduce opportunity

 

πŸ”Ή Assurance vs Consulting

Assurance Consulting

Independent opinion Advisory

Evidence-based Client decides

No impairment allowed Safeguards allowed

 

πŸ”Ή QAIP (Quality Program)

Internal assessment → ongoing + periodic

External assessment → every 5 years

Can state “Conforms with IIA Standards” only after QAIP

 

πŸ”Ή Internal Audit Charter

Approved by Board

Defines: 

o Authority

o Scope

o Reporting lines

Supports independence

 

πŸ”Ή CAE – Must Remember

Risk-based audit plan

Reports to Board

Maintains independence

Coordinates with external audit

Ensures QAIP

 

🚨 MOST COMMON EXAM TRAPS

IA owns risk ❌

IA designs controls ❌

Consulting = assurance ❌

Independence = personal ❌

Detective > Preventive ❌

 

🧠 FINAL MEMORY LINE

Board oversees – Management owns – Internal Audit assures

 

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CISA Domain 2 MCQ Questions with answers

50 high-quality MCQ questions covering CISA Domain 2 – Governance and Management of IT (as per the latest ISACA CISA exam focus). ANSWERS AT THE END.


Questions are exam-oriented, conceptual, scenario-based, and tricky, exactly the type tested in CISA.


CISA – Domain 2: Governance and Management of IT

50 MCQs Time Allowed: 60 minutes 


1. Which of the following BEST ensures alignment between IT strategy and business strategy?

A. IT steering committee
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Balanced scorecard
D. COBIT maturity model

Answer: 


2. Who is PRIMARILY responsible for ensuring IT governance is effective?

A. CIO
B. IT operations manager
C. Board of directors
D. Internal auditor

Answer: 


3. Which document formally defines decision-making authority for IT investments?

A. IT policies
B. IT governance framework
C. IT procedures
D. Service level agreements

Answer: 


4. Which of the following BEST demonstrates effective IT governance?

A. High IT spending
B. Alignment of IT goals with enterprise goals
C. Use of latest technology
D. Centralized IT department

Answer: 


5. A key objective of an IT steering committee is to:

A. Perform system audits
B. Resolve user access issues
C. Prioritize IT investments
D. Develop application code

Answer: 


6. Which role is MOST responsible for IT risk management?

A. IT operations
B. Business process owners
C. IT governance body
D. Application developers

Answer: 


7. Which metric BEST evaluates IT value delivery?

A. Number of IT staff
B. IT project completion time
C. Return on IT investment
D. Number of incidents

Answer: 


8. Which framework is MOST commonly used for IT governance?

A. ITIL
B. ISO 27001
C. COBIT
D. PRINCE2

Answer: 


9. Which of the following is a KEY component of IT governance?

A. Incident management
B. Value delivery
C. Change requests
D. Patch management

Answer: 


10. Who should approve the IT strategic plan?

A. CIO
B. IT steering committee
C. Internal audit
D. Project manager

Answer: 


11. Which practice ensures accountability in IT governance?

A. Segregation of duties
B. Clear roles and responsibilities
C. System documentation
D. Automated controls

Answer: 


12. The PRIMARY goal of IT portfolio management is to:

A. Reduce IT staff
B. Balance risk and value of IT investments
C. Improve help desk response time
D. Increase system availability

Answer: 


13. Which role ensures IT delivers business value?

A. IT technician
B. Data custodian
C. Business process owner
D. System programmer

Answer: 


14. Which document defines acceptable use of IT resources?

A. IT charter
B. IT policy
C. IT procedure
D. SLA

Answer: 


15. The BEST indicator of poor IT governance is:

A. High IT spending
B. Frequent system outages
C. Lack of business involvement in IT decisions
D. Outsourced IT services

Answer: 


16. What is the PRIMARY purpose of enterprise architecture?

A. Reduce IT costs
B. Ensure systems compatibility
C. Align IT with business processes
D. Improve system security

Answer: 


17. Which committee resolves conflicts between IT and business priorities?

A. Audit committee
B. Change advisory board
C. IT steering committee
D. Risk management committee

Answer: 


18. Which of the following BEST ensures compliance with external regulations?

A. ITIL
B. Corporate governance
C. Information security policy
D. Business continuity planning

Answer: 


19. Who should OWN IT risks?

A. IT department
B. Internal audit
C. Business management
D. External consultants

Answer: 


20. Which is the MOST effective way to measure IT performance?

A. Number of servers
B. Service level metrics
C. IT budget size
D. Staff utilization

Answer: 


21. Which governance principle emphasizes transparency and accountability?

A. Risk optimization
B. Value delivery
C. Stakeholder engagement
D. Performance measurement

Answer: 


22. IT governance is BEST described as:

A. Management of IT operations
B. Decision rights and accountability framework
C. IT service management
D. Control over IT infrastructure

Answer: 


23. Which role is MOST appropriate to approve IT policies?

A. System users
B. IT management
C. Senior management
D. Help desk

Answer: 


24. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an IT charter?

A. Define IT architecture
B. Establish authority and responsibility of IT
C. Document procedures
D. Specify controls

Answer: 


25. Which is MOST important for successful IT governance?

A. Advanced technology
B. Strong leadership support
C. Skilled developers
D. Automated tools

Answer: 


26. Who should participate in IT governance decisions?

A. Only IT management
B. Only business executives
C. Both IT and business management
D. External auditors

Answer: 


27. Which of the following BEST aligns IT initiatives with business priorities?

A. Project management office
B. IT policies
C. IT portfolio management
D. Change management

Answer: 


28. Which metric BEST supports IT governance reporting?

A. CPU utilization
B. Cost variance
C. Business outcome indicators
D. Network uptime

Answer: 


29. Which activity is part of IT demand management?

A. Incident resolution
B. Capacity planning
C. Evaluating business requests for IT services
D. Patch management

Answer: 


30. Who should be accountable for IT investment benefits realization?

A. CIO
B. IT project manager
C. Business sponsor
D. System analyst

Answer: 


31. Which factor MOST influences IT governance maturity?

A. Number of IT staff
B. Degree of management involvement
C. Level of automation
D. Hardware capacity

Answer: 


32. Which tool helps map IT goals to business goals?

A. Risk register
B. COBIT goals cascade
C. ITIL service catalog
D. RACI chart

Answer: 


33. Which role ensures segregation between IT development and operations?

A. CIO
B. IT governance body
C. Internal audit
D. HR department

Answer: 


34. Which is the PRIMARY objective of IT performance management?

A. Reduce IT costs
B. Improve technical efficiency
C. Ensure IT meets business needs
D. Increase automation

Answer: 


35. Which of the following is NOT part of IT governance?

A. Risk management
B. Value delivery
C. Incident handling
D. Strategic alignment

Answer: 


36. Which framework integrates governance and management objectives?

A. ITIL
B. ISO 20000
C. COBIT
D. PMBOK

Answer: 


37. What is the BEST evidence of effective IT governance?

A. Documented policies
B. Audit reports
C. Measurable business benefits from IT
D. Reduced IT headcount

Answer: 


38. Who ensures compliance with IT policies?

A. End users
B. IT governance body
C. Internal audit
D. System developers

Answer: 


39. Which governance mechanism ensures risk awareness?

A. Incident logs
B. Risk appetite statement
C. Change tickets
D. System metrics

Answer: 


40. IT governance primarily focuses on:

A. Technology management
B. Business value and risk
C. Operational efficiency
D. System security

Answer: 


41. Who defines IT risk appetite?

A. CIO
B. IT manager
C. Senior management
D. Internal audit

Answer: 


42. Which practice ensures continuous improvement in IT governance?

A. Benchmarking
B. Incident tracking
C. Access reviews
D. Backup testing

Answer: 


43. What is the PRIMARY benefit of an IT balanced scorecard?

A. Technical performance tracking
B. Financial reporting
C. Strategic alignment monitoring
D. Incident reduction

Answer: 


44. Which role approves major IT investments?

A. Project manager
B. CIO
C. Board or executive committee
D. IT operations

Answer: 


45. Which factor MOST impacts IT governance success?

A. Size of IT budget
B. Management commitment
C. Number of applications
D. Vendor relationships

Answer: 


46. Which is MOST important when outsourcing IT services?

A. Lowest cost
B. Contract flexibility
C. Governance and oversight
D. Vendor reputation

Answer: 


47. Who ensures alignment of IT KPIs with business KPIs?

A. IT operations
B. Business executives
C. IT governance body
D. System users

Answer: 


48. Which document links IT objectives to enterprise objectives?

A. IT procedures
B. Enterprise strategy
C. IT strategic plan
D. IT asset register

Answer: 


49. Which principle ensures IT risks are managed appropriately?

A. Value delivery
B. Risk optimization
C. Performance measurement
D. Resource management

Answer: 


50. The MOST effective way to improve IT governance is to:

A. Increase controls
B. Use latest frameworks
C. Strengthen business-IT collaboration
D. Outsource IT

Answer: 


πŸ“Œ CISA Domain 2 – Exam Tips

  • Board owns IT governance
  • Business owns IT risks
  • COBIT = BEST framework
  • IT steering committee = key exam favorite
  • Focus on alignment, value, risk, accountability

www.gmsisuccess.in


CISA – Domain 2: Governance and Management of IT

50 MCQs with Answers


1. Which of the following BEST ensures alignment between IT strategy and business strategy?

A. IT steering committee
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Balanced scorecard
D. COBIT maturity model

Answer: A


2. Who is PRIMARILY responsible for ensuring IT governance is effective?

A. CIO
B. IT operations manager
C. Board of directors
D. Internal auditor

Answer: C


3. Which document formally defines decision-making authority for IT investments?

A. IT policies
B. IT governance framework
C. IT procedures
D. Service level agreements

Answer: B


4. Which of the following BEST demonstrates effective IT governance?

A. High IT spending
B. Alignment of IT goals with enterprise goals
C. Use of latest technology
D. Centralized IT department

Answer: B


5. A key objective of an IT steering committee is to:

A. Perform system audits
B. Resolve user access issues
C. Prioritize IT investments
D. Develop application code

Answer: C


6. Which role is MOST responsible for IT risk management?

A. IT operations
B. Business process owners
C. IT governance body
D. Application developers

Answer: C


7. Which metric BEST evaluates IT value delivery?

A. Number of IT staff
B. IT project completion time
C. Return on IT investment
D. Number of incidents

Answer: C


8. Which framework is MOST commonly used for IT governance?

A. ITIL
B. ISO 27001
C. COBIT
D. PRINCE2

Answer: C


9. Which of the following is a KEY component of IT governance?

A. Incident management
B. Value delivery
C. Change requests
D. Patch management

Answer: B


10. Who should approve the IT strategic plan?

A. CIO
B. IT steering committee
C. Internal audit
D. Project manager

Answer: B


11. Which practice ensures accountability in IT governance?

A. Segregation of duties
B. Clear roles and responsibilities
C. System documentation
D. Automated controls

Answer: B


12. The PRIMARY goal of IT portfolio management is to:

A. Reduce IT staff
B. Balance risk and value of IT investments
C. Improve help desk response time
D. Increase system availability

Answer: B


13. Which role ensures IT delivers business value?

A. IT technician
B. Data custodian
C. Business process owner
D. System programmer

Answer: C


14. Which document defines acceptable use of IT resources?

A. IT charter
B. IT policy
C. IT procedure
D. SLA

Answer: B


15. The BEST indicator of poor IT governance is:

A. High IT spending
B. Frequent system outages
C. Lack of business involvement in IT decisions
D. Outsourced IT services

Answer: C


16. What is the PRIMARY purpose of enterprise architecture?

A. Reduce IT costs
B. Ensure systems compatibility
C. Align IT with business processes
D. Improve system security

Answer: C


17. Which committee resolves conflicts between IT and business priorities?

A. Audit committee
B. Change advisory board
C. IT steering committee
D. Risk management committee

Answer: C


18. Which of the following BEST ensures compliance with external regulations?

A. ITIL
B. Corporate governance
C. Information security policy
D. Business continuity planning

Answer: B


19. Who should OWN IT risks?

A. IT department
B. Internal audit
C. Business management
D. External consultants

Answer: C


20. Which is the MOST effective way to measure IT performance?

A. Number of servers
B. Service level metrics
C. IT budget size
D. Staff utilization

Answer: B


21. Which governance principle emphasizes transparency and accountability?

A. Risk optimization
B. Value delivery
C. Stakeholder engagement
D. Performance measurement

Answer: C


22. IT governance is BEST described as:

A. Management of IT operations
B. Decision rights and accountability framework
C. IT service management
D. Control over IT infrastructure

Answer: B


23. Which role is MOST appropriate to approve IT policies?

A. System users
B. IT management
C. Senior management
D. Help desk

Answer: C


24. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an IT charter?

A. Define IT architecture
B. Establish authority and responsibility of IT
C. Document procedures
D. Specify controls

Answer: B


25. Which is MOST important for successful IT governance?

A. Advanced technology
B. Strong leadership support
C. Skilled developers
D. Automated tools

Answer: B


26. Who should participate in IT governance decisions?

A. Only IT management
B. Only business executives
C. Both IT and business management
D. External auditors

Answer: C


27. Which of the following BEST aligns IT initiatives with business priorities?

A. Project management office
B. IT policies
C. IT portfolio management
D. Change management

Answer: C


28. Which metric BEST supports IT governance reporting?

A. CPU utilization
B. Cost variance
C. Business outcome indicators
D. Network uptime

Answer: C


29. Which activity is part of IT demand management?

A. Incident resolution
B. Capacity planning
C. Evaluating business requests for IT services
D. Patch management

Answer: C


30. Who should be accountable for IT investment benefits realization?

A. CIO
B. IT project manager
C. Business sponsor
D. System analyst

Answer: C


31. Which factor MOST influences IT governance maturity?

A. Number of IT staff
B. Degree of management involvement
C. Level of automation
D. Hardware capacity

Answer: B


32. Which tool helps map IT goals to business goals?

A. Risk register
B. COBIT goals cascade
C. ITIL service catalog
D. RACI chart

Answer: B


33. Which role ensures segregation between IT development and operations?

A. CIO
B. IT governance body
C. Internal audit
D. HR department

Answer: B


34. Which is the PRIMARY objective of IT performance management?

A. Reduce IT costs
B. Improve technical efficiency
C. Ensure IT meets business needs
D. Increase automation

Answer: C


35. Which of the following is NOT part of IT governance?

A. Risk management
B. Value delivery
C. Incident handling
D. Strategic alignment

Answer: C


36. Which framework integrates governance and management objectives?

A. ITIL
B. ISO 20000
C. COBIT
D. PMBOK

Answer: C


37. What is the BEST evidence of effective IT governance?

A. Documented policies
B. Audit reports
C. Measurable business benefits from IT
D. Reduced IT headcount

Answer: C


38. Who ensures compliance with IT policies?

A. End users
B. IT governance body
C. Internal audit
D. System developers

Answer: B


39. Which governance mechanism ensures risk awareness?

A. Incident logs
B. Risk appetite statement
C. Change tickets
D. System metrics

Answer: B


40. IT governance primarily focuses on:

A. Technology management
B. Business value and risk
C. Operational efficiency
D. System security

Answer: B


41. Who defines IT risk appetite?

A. CIO
B. IT manager
C. Senior management
D. Internal audit

Answer: C


42. Which practice ensures continuous improvement in IT governance?

A. Benchmarking
B. Incident tracking
C. Access reviews
D. Backup testing

Answer: A


43. What is the PRIMARY benefit of an IT balanced scorecard?

A. Technical performance tracking
B. Financial reporting
C. Strategic alignment monitoring
D. Incident reduction

Answer: C


44. Which role approves major IT investments?

A. Project manager
B. CIO
C. Board or executive committee
D. IT operations

Answer: C


45. Which factor MOST impacts IT governance success?

A. Size of IT budget
B. Management commitment
C. Number of applications
D. Vendor relationships

Answer: B


46. Which is MOST important when outsourcing IT services?

A. Lowest cost
B. Contract flexibility
C. Governance and oversight
D. Vendor reputation

Answer: C


47. Who ensures alignment of IT KPIs with business KPIs?

A. IT operations
B. Business executives
C. IT governance body
D. System users

Answer: C


48. Which document links IT objectives to enterprise objectives?

A. IT procedures
B. Enterprise strategy
C. IT strategic plan
D. IT asset register

Answer: C


49. Which principle ensures IT risks are managed appropriately?

A. Value delivery
B. Risk optimization
C. Performance measurement
D. Resource management

Answer: B


50. The MOST effective way to improve IT governance is to:

A. Increase controls
B. Use latest frameworks
C. Strengthen business-IT collaboration
D. Outsource IT

Answer: C


πŸ“Œ CISA Domain 2 Feel free to discuss with me if you have any questions ‼️ WA9773464206.

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Lease Accounting MCQ Question ⁉️ Answers


πŸ“˜ LEASE ACCOUNTING (US GAAP – ASC 842)



50 MCQs with Correct Answers


1. Under US GAAP, a lease exists when:


A. Ownership transfers at end

B. Contract conveys right to control use of identified asset

C. Payments exceed fair value

D. Lease term exceeds 12 months


Answer: B


2. Which of the following is NOT a lease classification under US GAAP for lessee?


A. Finance lease

B. Operating lease

C. Capital lease

D. Short-term lease (exemption)


Answer: C


3. A lease is classified as a finance lease if:


A. Lease term is insignificant

B. Ownership transfers at end

C. Asset is low value

D. Lease payments are variable only


Answer: B


4. One criterion for finance lease classification is:


A. Lease term ≥ major part of asset’s economic life

B. Lease payments are cancellable

C. Residual value guaranteed by lessor

D. Lease is non-renewable


Answer: A


5. “Major part” under US GAAP is generally interpreted as:


A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 75%

D. 90%


Answer: C


6. Present value of lease payments equals “substantially all” of fair value if approximately:


A. 70%

B. 80%

C. 90%

D. 100%


Answer: C


7. Lessee recognizes which of the following for both finance and operating leases?


A. Lease expense

B. Right-of-use asset

C. Accumulated depreciation

D. Lease income


Answer: B


8. Lease liability is initially measured at:


A. Fair value of asset

B. Undiscounted lease payments

C. Present value of lease payments

D. Residual value


Answer: C


9. Discount rate used by lessee is:


A. Risk-free rate

B. Incremental borrowing rate (if implicit rate unknown)

C. Prime lending rate

D. Inflation rate


Answer: B


10. Which payment is included in lease liability?


A. Variable payments based on sales

B. Variable payments based on index/rate

C. Maintenance cost

D. Insurance cost


Answer: B


11. Short-term lease exemption applies when lease term is:


A. ≤ 6 months

B. ≤ 9 months

C. ≤ 12 months

D. ≤ 18 months


Answer: C


12. For a short-term lease, lessee:


A. Capitalizes ROU asset

B. Recognizes lease expense straight-line

C. Recognizes depreciation and interest

D. Recognizes liability only


Answer: B


13. Finance lease expense consists of:


A. Single lease expense

B. Depreciation + Interest

C. Variable expense only

D. Rent expense


Answer: B


14. Operating lease expense is recognized:


A. Front-loaded

B. Back-loaded

C. Straight-line

D. Only at payment dates


Answer: C


15. Under operating lease, interest component:


A. Not recognized

B. Included within single lease expense

C. Reported separately

D. Capitalized


Answer: B


16. Which lease results in higher expense in early years?


A. Operating lease

B. Finance lease

C. Short-term lease

D. Service contract


Answer: B


17. For cash flow classification, finance lease principal repayment is:


A. Operating activity

B. Investing activity

C. Financing activity

D. Non-cash activity


Answer: C


18. Operating lease payments are classified as:


A. Financing cash flow

B. Investing cash flow

C. Operating cash flow

D. Mixed cash flow


Answer: C


19. Initial direct costs are:


A. Expensed immediately

B. Excluded from ROU asset

C. Included in ROU asset

D. Treated as interest


Answer: C


20. Lease incentives received reduce:


A. Lease liability

B. Lease expense only

C. ROU asset

D. Interest cost


Answer: C


21. Guaranteed residual value affects:


A. Lease expense only

B. Lease liability measurement

C. Depreciation only

D. Cash flow classification


Answer: B


22. Non-lease components:


A. Must be combined with lease

B. Are expensed separately unless elected

C. Ignored

D. Capitalized always


Answer: B


23. Lessee may elect to combine lease and non-lease components:


A. Only for finance leases

B. Only for operating leases

C. For all asset classes

D. Never allowed


Answer: C


24. Reassessment of lease liability occurs when:


A. Discount rate changes

B. Lease term changes

C. Market rent changes

D. Inflation increases


Answer: B


25. Variable payments based on performance:


A. Included in liability

B. Excluded from liability

C. Discounted

D. Capitalized


Answer: B


26. A lease with bargain purchase option is:


A. Operating lease

B. Short-term lease

C. Finance lease

D. Service contract


Answer: C


27. Lessor classification includes:


A. Operating and finance only

B. Sales-type, direct financing, operating

C. Capital lease only

D. Finance and short-term


Answer: B


28. Sales-type lease occurs when:


A. PV of payments < carrying value

B. Control transfers to lessee

C. Lease term < 50%

D. Asset is returned


Answer: B


29. Lessor recognizes selling profit at commencement in:


A. Operating lease

B. Direct financing lease

C. Sales-type lease

D. Short-term lease


Answer: C


30. In direct financing lease, lessor profit is:


A. Immediate

B. Deferred

C. Not recognized

D. Variable


Answer: B


31. Under operating lease, asset remains on:


A. Lessee’s balance sheet

B. Lessor’s balance sheet

C. Both balance sheets

D. Off-balance sheet


Answer: B


32. Lease modifications that add asset at market rate are treated as:


A. Reassessment

B. New lease

C. Termination

D. Error correction


Answer: B


33. Lease term includes:


A. Only non-cancellable period

B. Renewal periods reasonably certain

C. All possible extensions

D. Only minimum term


Answer: B


34. Residual value guaranteed by lessee:


A. Ignored

B. Included in lease liability

C. Expensed immediately

D. Treated as variable


Answer: B


35. Lease liability is reduced by:


A. Interest portion

B. Principal repayment

C. Lease expense

D. Depreciation


Answer: B


36. ROU asset amortization under operating lease is:


A. Straight-line

B. Based on usage

C. Accelerated

D. Not recognized


Answer: A


37. Which improves EBITDA?


A. Finance lease

B. Operating lease

C. Short-term lease

D. Both A & B


Answer: A


38. Lease accounting under US GAAP aims to:


A. Reduce profit volatility

B. Bring leases on balance sheet

C. Eliminate operating leases

D. Increase ROA


Answer: B


39. Which is NOT included in lease payments?


A. Fixed payments

B. In-substance fixed payments

C. Sales-based variable payments

D. Residual value guarantees


Answer: C


40. Initial measurement date of lease is:


A. Payment date

B. Commencement date

C. Contract signing date

D. Reporting date


Answer: B


41. Lease liability is a:


A. Current asset

B. Non-current asset

C. Financial liability

D. Equity


Answer: C


42. Operating lease liability is presented:


A. Off-balance sheet

B. As long-term debt

C. Separately from finance lease liability

D. As equity


Answer: C


43. Leaseback accounting depends on:


A. Lease term

B. Sale recognition

C. Asset class

D. Discount rate


Answer: B


44. If sale is not recognized in sale-leaseback:


A. Lease accounting applies

B. Financing arrangement applies

C. Operating lease applies

D. Asset is derecognized


Answer: B


45. ROU asset impairment follows:


A. ASC 350

B. ASC 360

C. ASC 330

D. ASC 606


Answer: B


46. Lease incentives reduce:


A. Lease liability only

B. Lease expense only

C. ROU asset

D. Interest cost


Answer: C


47. Incremental borrowing rate reflects:


A. Company credit risk

B. Asset risk

C. Market rent

D. Inflation only


Answer: A


48. Lease expense under operating lease affects:


A. EBIT only

B. EBITDA only

C. EBITDA & EBIT

D. Cash flow only


Answer: C


49. A lease cancellable by lessee without penalty is:


A. Included fully

B. Excluded from term

C. Considered short-term

D. Finance lease


Answer: B


50. Key CMA exam trick: Operating lease under ASC 842:


A. Is off-balance sheet

B. Has no liability

C. Still creates ROU asset & liability

D. Is identical to IFRS


Answer: C


NUMERICAL MCQs on LEASE ACCOUNTING (US GAAP – ASC 842), designed exactly at US CMA exam difficulty.

Each question tests PV logic, classification traps, expense pattern, and cash-flow impact.


1.


A lessee enters into a 5-year lease. Annual payment = ₹100,000 payable at beginning of each year.

Incremental borrowing rate = 10%.


PV factor (annuity due, 10%, 5 yrs) = 4.170.


Lease liability at commencement is:


A. ₹379,100

B. ₹417,000

C. ₹450,000

D. ₹500,000


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Beginning of year → annuity due


2.


Fair value of asset = ₹420,000

PV of lease payments = ₹380,000


Economic life = 8 years

Lease term = 6 years


Classification?


A. Operating lease

B. Finance lease

C. Short-term lease

D. Service contract


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Lease term = 75% of life → finance lease


3.


A finance lease has:


Lease liability = ₹500,000

Rate = 8%

Annual payment = ₹120,000 (end of year)

Interest expense for Year 1 is:


A. ₹40,000

B. ₹48,000

C. ₹60,000

D. ₹80,000


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Interest = Opening liability × rate


4.


Which lease shows higher total expense in Year 1, assuming same payments?


A. Operating lease

B. Finance lease

C. Both equal

D. Depends on payment timing


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Finance lease = front-loaded


5.


Operating lease:


Annual payment = ₹200,000

Lease term = 5 years

Lease expense per year equals:


A. ₹160,000

B. ₹180,000

C. ₹200,000

D. Varies each year


Answer: C


πŸ“Œ Trick: Straight-line single expense


6.


Lease payments include:


Fixed rent: ₹90,000

Sales-based variable rent: ₹20,000

CPI-linked increase (current): ₹10,000

Lease liability includes:


A. ₹90,000

B. ₹100,000

C. ₹110,000

D. ₹120,000


Answer: C


πŸ“Œ Trick: Exclude sales-based variable


7.


Initial direct costs of ₹15,000 are incurred.


ROU asset equals:


A. Lease liability only

B. Lease liability + IDC

C. Lease payments only

D. Fair value


Answer: B


8.


A 10-year lease, cancellable after 3 years without penalty.


Lease term considered:


A. 10 years

B. 3 years

C. 5 years

D. 7 years


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Cancellable without penalty → exclude


9.


Which cash flow classification is correct?


A. Finance lease interest → Financing

B. Finance lease principal → Operating

C. Operating lease payment → Operating

D. Operating lease payment → Financing


Answer: C


10.


A lease transfers ownership at end. Lease term = 4 yrs, economic life = 10 yrs.


Classification?


A. Operating

B. Finance

C. Short-term

D. Service


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Ownership transfer overrides %


11.


Residual value guaranteed by lessee = ₹50,000.


Effect on lease liability?


A. Ignored

B. Added to lease payments

C. Expensed

D. Treated as variable


Answer: B


12.


Lease term = 12 months exactly, no renewal.


Accounting treatment?


A. Finance lease

B. Operating lease

C. Short-term lease exemption

D. Service


Answer: C


13.


Which improves EBITDA the most?


A. Operating lease

B. Finance lease

C. Both equal

D. Short-term lease


Answer: B


πŸ“Œ Trick: Depreciation & interest excluded from EBITDA


14.


ROU asset amortization under operating lease is:


A. Front-loaded

B. Back-loaded

C. Straight-line

D. Not recognized


Answer: C


15.


Lease liability decreases by:


A. Lease expense

B. Interest expense

C. Principal payment

D. Depreciation


Answer: C


16.


PV of lease payments = ₹900,000

Fair value = ₹950,000


This is approximately:


A. 85%

B. 90%

C. 95%

D. 100%


Answer: C


πŸ“Œ Trick: Substantially all → finance lease


17.


Which item is excluded from lease liability?


A. Fixed payments

B. In-substance fixed payments

C. Sales-based variable rent

D. Residual guarantees


Answer: C


18.


Finance lease – depreciation period is:


A. Lease term always

B. Economic life always

C. Shorter of lease term or life (unless ownership transfers)

D. Based on usage


Answer: C


19.


Operating lease ROU asset impairment follows:


A. ASC 330

B. ASC 350

C. ASC 360

D. ASC 842


Answer: C


20.


Key US CMA exam trick:


A. Operating leases are off-balance sheet

B. Only finance leases create liability

C. Both leases create ROU asset & liability

D. IFRS and US GAAP identical


Answer: C


🎯 CMA EXAM QUICK NUMERICAL TRAPS


Annuity due vs ordinary annuity

75% / 90% thumb rules

Variable rent exclusion

EBITDA impact

Cash flow classification

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Below are MUST-REMEMBER BULLET POINTS for LEASE ACCOUNTING (US GAAP – ASC 842), compiled strictly for the US CMA exam.

These are high-yield, exam-scoring points — memorize them.


πŸ”‘ LEASE ACCOUNTING – US CMA MUST REMEMBER POINTS


πŸ“˜ 1. Core Concept (Golden Rule)


Lease exists when contract conveys right to control use of an identified asset

Control =

✔ Right to obtain economic benefits

✔ Right to direct use

πŸ“˜ 2. Lessee Lease Types (US GAAP)


Only 2 types:

Finance lease

Operating lease

Capital lease term is eliminated

πŸ“˜ 3. Finance Lease – ANY ONE CRITERION


A lease is finance lease if ANY ONE is met:


Ownership transfers at end

Bargain purchase option

Lease term = major part (≈75%) of economic life

PV of lease payments = substantially all (≈90%) of fair value

Asset is specialized

πŸ‘‰ If none → Operating lease


πŸ“˜ 4. Balance Sheet (VERY IMPORTANT)


Both finance & operating leases create:

Right-of-Use (ROU) Asset

Lease Liability

❌ No off-balance sheet operating leases (old GAAP)

πŸ“˜ 5. Initial Measurement


Lease Liability =


PV of lease payments

Discount rate:

Implicit rate (if known)

Else Incremental borrowing rate (IBR)

ROU Asset =


Lease liability

Initial direct costs

Prepaid rent

− Lease incentives received

πŸ“˜ 6. Lease Payments – INCLUDE


✔ Fixed payments

✔ In-substance fixed payments

✔ Variable payments based on index or rate

✔ Residual value guaranteed by lessee

✔ Purchase option (if reasonably certain)


πŸ“˜ 7. Lease Payments – EXCLUDE (CMA TRAP)


❌ Sales-based variable rent

❌ Usage-based variable rent

❌ Maintenance, insurance, service costs (unless elected to combine)


πŸ“˜ 8. Short-Term Lease Exemption


Lease term ≤ 12 months

No ROU asset or liability

Expense recognized straight-line

Election is optional

πŸ“˜ 9. Expense Pattern (VERY TESTED)


Lease Type


Expense Pattern


Finance lease


Depreciation + Interest (Front-loaded)


Operating lease


Single lease expense (Straight-line)


πŸ“˜ 10. EBITDA Impact (EXAM FAVORITE)


Finance lease → Higher EBITDA

Operating lease → Lower EBITDA

Reason:

Depreciation & interest excluded from EBITDA

πŸ“˜ 11. Cash Flow Classification


Finance Lease:


Interest → Operating

Principal repayment → Financing

Operating Lease:


Entire payment → Operating

πŸ“˜ 12. Lease Term Determination


Lease term includes:


Non-cancellable period

Renewal periods reasonably certain

Termination options not included if cancellable without penalty

πŸ“˜ 13. Annuity Rule (NUMERICAL TRAP)


Payment at beginning → Annuity Due

Payment at end → Ordinary Annuity

πŸ‘‰ Always check payment timing


πŸ“˜ 14. Residual Value


Guaranteed by lessee → Included in liability

Unguaranteed → Ignored

πŸ“˜ 15. Lease Modification


Adds asset at market price → New lease

Changes term or payments → Remeasure liability

πŸ“˜ 16. Lessor Classification (Quick Recall)


Sales-type lease

Direct financing lease

Operating lease

πŸ“˜ 17. Sales-Type vs Direct Financing


Aspect


Sales-Type


Direct Financing


Selling profit


Immediate


Deferred


Control transfer


Yes


Yes


πŸ“˜ 18. Sale-Leaseback (CMA Trick)


If sale is recognized → Lease accounting applies

If sale not recognized → Financing arrangement

πŸ“˜ 19. Impairment


ROU asset impairment → ASC 360

πŸ“˜ 20. MOST IMPORTANT CMA LINE


Under ASC 842, both operating and finance leases are ON the balance sheet.


🎯 EXAM DAY MEMORY HOOK


“75–90–12–EBITDA”


75% life

90% fair value

12 months short-term

Finance lease ↑ EBITDA

 


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