Thursday, February 12, 2026

MCQ on Financial Derivatives

 

Here are 50 MCQs on Financial DerivativesOptions, Forwards, Futures, Hedging, Speculation, Arbitrage aligned with US CMA Part 2 (Corporate Finance) syllabus.

SOLVE FIRST THEN CHECK ✔️ YOURSELF ANSWERS ARE AT THE END.


✅ Financial Derivatives – 50 MCQs


1. A derivative derives its value from:

A. Interest rate
B. Underlying asset
C. Inflation rate
D. Government policy
Answer: 


2. The underlying asset of an option can be:

A. Stock
B. Bond
C. Commodity
D. All of the above
Answer: 


3. A call option gives the holder the right to:

A. Sell an asset
B. Buy an asset
C. Borrow money
D. Lend money
Answer: 


4. A put option gives the holder the right to:

A. Buy an asset
B. Sell an asset
C. Issue shares
D. Borrow funds
Answer: 


5. The strike price is:

A. Market price
B. Exercise price
C. Premium paid
D. Futures price
Answer: 


6. The premium of an option is:

A. Refundable deposit
B. Price paid for the option
C. Strike price
D. Dividend
Answer: 


7. Option writer is:

A. Buyer of option
B. Seller of option
C. Broker
D. Arbitrageur
Answer: 


8. Option owner has:

A. Obligation
B. Right but not obligation
C. Obligation to buy
D. Obligation to sell
Answer: 


9. A call option is “in the money” when:

A. Market price < Strike price
B. Market price = Strike price
C. Market price > Strike price
D. Premium > Strike price
Answer: 


10. A put option is “in the money” when:

A. Market price > Strike price
B. Market price < Strike price
C. Market price = Premium
D. Premium > Strike price
Answer: 


11. At-the-money option means:

A. Market price = Strike price
B. Market price > Strike price
C. Premium = 0
D. Expired option
Answer: 


12. Out-of-the-money call option occurs when:

A. Market > Strike
B. Market < Strike
C. Market = Strike
D. Premium high
Answer: 


13. Maximum loss for call buyer is:

A. Unlimited
B. Strike price
C. Premium paid
D. Market price
Answer: 


14. Maximum gain for call buyer is:

A. Limited
B. Unlimited
C. Zero
D. Premium
Answer: 


15. Maximum gain for call writer is:

A. Unlimited
B. Strike price
C. Premium received
D. Market price
Answer: 


16. A forward contract is:

A. Standardized
B. Exchange traded
C. OTC customized contract
D. Daily settled
Answer: 


17. Futures contracts are:

A. OTC
B. Customized
C. Standardized and exchange traded
D. Illegal
Answer: 


18. Futures are marked to market:

A. At maturity
B. Weekly
C. Daily
D. Never
Answer: 


19. Counterparty risk is higher in:

A. Futures
B. Forwards
C. Options
D. Swaps on exchange
Answer: 


20. Hedging primarily aims to:

A. Maximize profit
B. Reduce risk
C. Speculate
D. Arbitrage
Answer: 


21. Speculation involves:

A. Risk reduction
B. Locking price
C. Taking risk for profit
D. Arbitrage-free pricing
Answer: 


22. Arbitrage is:

A. Hedging risk
B. Buying and selling for risk-free profit
C. Gambling
D. Paying premium
Answer: 


23. A protective put strategy involves:

A. Buying stock and selling put
B. Buying stock and buying put
C. Selling stock and buying call
D. Selling call only
Answer: 


24. Covered call involves:

A. Selling call and owning stock
B. Buying call only
C. Buying put only
D. Selling stock
Answer: 


25. Break-even for call buyer equals:

A. Strike – Premium
B. Strike + Premium
C. Market price
D. Premium only
Answer: 


26. Break-even for put buyer equals:

A. Strike + Premium
B. Strike – Premium
C. Premium
D. Market price
Answer: 


27. Intrinsic value of call option:

A. Max(0, Market – Strike)
B. Max(0, Strike – Market)
C. Premium
D. Zero
Answer: 


28. Intrinsic value of put:

A. Market – Strike
B. Strike – Market
C. Premium
D. Market price
Answer: 


29. Time value of option equals:

A. Premium – Intrinsic value
B. Strike – Premium
C. Market price
D. Zero
Answer: 


30. If stock = $120, strike = $100, call intrinsic value:

A. 0
B. 20
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: 


31. If stock = $80, strike = $100, put intrinsic value:

A. 20
B. 0
C. 100
D. 80
Answer: 


32. Long hedge means:

A. Sell futures
B. Buy futures
C. Sell spot
D. Buy put
Answer: 


33. Short hedge means:

A. Buy futures
B. Sell futures
C. Buy call
D. Buy stock
Answer: 


34. A company expecting to purchase raw material should:

A. Short futures
B. Long futures
C. Sell call
D. Arbitrage
Answer: 


35. A company expecting to sell inventory should:

A. Long futures
B. Short futures
C. Buy call
D. Buy stock
Answer: 


36. Option buyer’s loss is:

A. Unlimited
B. Limited
C. Zero
D. Strike price
Answer: 


37. Futures contract obligates parties to:

A. Right only
B. Option to buy
C. Buy/sell at future date
D. Pay premium only
Answer: 


38. Margin requirement applies in:

A. Forwards
B. Futures
C. Private contracts
D. OTC swaps
Answer: 


39. American option can be exercised:

A. Only at expiry
B. Anytime before expiry
C. After expiry
D. Never
Answer: 


40. European option exercised:

A. Anytime
B. Only at maturity
C. Before maturity
D. Daily
Answer: 


41. If premium = $5, strike = $100, break-even call:

A. 95
B. 100
C. 105
D. 5
Answer: 


42. If stock price falls drastically, call buyer:

A. Gains unlimited
B. Loses only premium
C. Gains premium
D. Break-even
Answer: 


43. Arbitrage opportunity exists when:

A. Same asset priced differently in two markets
B. Premium is high
C. Strike equals market
D. Futures exist
Answer: 


44. Futures price converges to spot price:

A. At inception
B. At expiration
C. Randomly
D. Never
Answer: 


45. Call option is valuable when:

A. Price expected to fall
B. Price expected to rise
C. Stable price
D. Interest falls
Answer: 


46. Put option is valuable when:

A. Price expected to rise
B. Price expected to fall
C. Price stable
D. Dividend paid
Answer: 


47. Speculator expecting price increase should:

A. Buy put
B. Sell call
C. Buy call
D. Short futures
Answer: 


48. Maximum loss for put writer:

A. Unlimited
B. Strike price – Premium
C. Premium
D. Zero
Answer: 


49. Derivatives are primarily used for:

A. Tax avoidance
B. Risk management
C. Dividend declaration
D. Accounting entries
Answer: 


50. Basis risk arises when:

A. Hedge imperfectly offsets exposure
B. No premium paid
C. Option expires
D. Futures standardized
Answer: 

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Answers:


✅ Financial Derivatives – 50 MCQs (with Answers)


1. A derivative derives its value from:

A. Interest rate
B. Underlying asset
C. Inflation rate
D. Government policy
Answer: B


2. The underlying asset of an option can be:

A. Stock
B. Bond
C. Commodity
D. All of the above
Answer: D


3. A call option gives the holder the right to:

A. Sell an asset
B. Buy an asset
C. Borrow money
D. Lend money
Answer: B


4. A put option gives the holder the right to:

A. Buy an asset
B. Sell an asset
C. Issue shares
D. Borrow funds
Answer: B


5. The strike price is:

A. Market price
B. Exercise price
C. Premium paid
D. Futures price
Answer: B


6. The premium of an option is:

A. Refundable deposit
B. Price paid for the option
C. Strike price
D. Dividend
Answer: B


7. Option writer is:

A. Buyer of option
B. Seller of option
C. Broker
D. Arbitrageur
Answer: B


8. Option owner has:

A. Obligation
B. Right but not obligation
C. Obligation to buy
D. Obligation to sell
Answer: B


9. A call option is “in the money” when:

A. Market price < Strike price
B. Market price = Strike price
C. Market price > Strike price
D. Premium > Strike price
Answer: C


10. A put option is “in the money” when:

A. Market price > Strike price
B. Market price < Strike price
C. Market price = Premium
D. Premium > Strike price
Answer: B


11. At-the-money option means:

A. Market price = Strike price
B. Market price > Strike price
C. Premium = 0
D. Expired option
Answer: A


12. Out-of-the-money call option occurs when:

A. Market > Strike
B. Market < Strike
C. Market = Strike
D. Premium high
Answer: B


13. Maximum loss for call buyer is:

A. Unlimited
B. Strike price
C. Premium paid
D. Market price
Answer: C


14. Maximum gain for call buyer is:

A. Limited
B. Unlimited
C. Zero
D. Premium
Answer: B


15. Maximum gain for call writer is:

A. Unlimited
B. Strike price
C. Premium received
D. Market price
Answer: C


16. A forward contract is:

A. Standardized
B. Exchange traded
C. OTC customized contract
D. Daily settled
Answer: C


17. Futures contracts are:

A. OTC
B. Customized
C. Standardized and exchange traded
D. Illegal
Answer: C


18. Futures are marked to market:

A. At maturity
B. Weekly
C. Daily
D. Never
Answer: C


19. Counterparty risk is higher in:

A. Futures
B. Forwards
C. Options
D. Swaps on exchange
Answer: B


20. Hedging primarily aims to:

A. Maximize profit
B. Reduce risk
C. Speculate
D. Arbitrage
Answer: B


21. Speculation involves:

A. Risk reduction
B. Locking price
C. Taking risk for profit
D. Arbitrage-free pricing
Answer: C


22. Arbitrage is:

A. Hedging risk
B. Buying and selling for risk-free profit
C. Gambling
D. Paying premium
Answer: B


23. A protective put strategy involves:

A. Buying stock and selling put
B. Buying stock and buying put
C. Selling stock and buying call
D. Selling call only
Answer: B


24. Covered call involves:

A. Selling call and owning stock
B. Buying call only
C. Buying put only
D. Selling stock
Answer: A


25. Break-even for call buyer equals:

A. Strike – Premium
B. Strike + Premium
C. Market price
D. Premium only
Answer: B


26. Break-even for put buyer equals:

A. Strike + Premium
B. Strike – Premium
C. Premium
D. Market price
Answer: B


27. Intrinsic value of call option:

A. Max(0, Market – Strike)
B. Max(0, Strike – Market)
C. Premium
D. Zero
Answer: A


28. Intrinsic value of put:

A. Market – Strike
B. Strike – Market
C. Premium
D. Market price
Answer: B


29. Time value of option equals:

A. Premium – Intrinsic value
B. Strike – Premium
C. Market price
D. Zero
Answer: A


30. If stock = $120, strike = $100, call intrinsic value:

A. 0
B. 20
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: B


31. If stock = $80, strike = $100, put intrinsic value:

A. 20
B. 0
C. 100
D. 80
Answer: A


32. Long hedge means:

A. Sell futures
B. Buy futures
C. Sell spot
D. Buy put
Answer: B


33. Short hedge means:

A. Buy futures
B. Sell futures
C. Buy call
D. Buy stock
Answer: B


34. A company expecting to purchase raw material should:

A. Short futures
B. Long futures
C. Sell call
D. Arbitrage
Answer: B


35. A company expecting to sell inventory should:

A. Long futures
B. Short futures
C. Buy call
D. Buy stock
Answer: B


36. Option buyer’s loss is:

A. Unlimited
B. Limited
C. Zero
D. Strike price
Answer: B


37. Futures contract obligates parties to:

A. Right only
B. Option to buy
C. Buy/sell at future date
D. Pay premium only
Answer: C


38. Margin requirement applies in:

A. Forwards
B. Futures
C. Private contracts
D. OTC swaps
Answer: B


39. American option can be exercised:

A. Only at expiry
B. Anytime before expiry
C. After expiry
D. Never
Answer: B


40. European option exercised:

A. Anytime
B. Only at maturity
C. Before maturity
D. Daily
Answer: B


41. If premium = $5, strike = $100, break-even call:

A. 95
B. 100
C. 105
D. 5
Answer: C


42. If stock price falls drastically, call buyer:

A. Gains unlimited
B. Loses only premium
C. Gains premium
D. Break-even
Answer: B


43. Arbitrage opportunity exists when:

A. Same asset priced differently in two markets
B. Premium is high
C. Strike equals market
D. Futures exist
Answer: A


44. Futures price converges to spot price:

A. At inception
B. At expiration
C. Randomly
D. Never
Answer: B


45. Call option is valuable when:

A. Price expected to fall
B. Price expected to rise
C. Stable price
D. Interest falls
Answer: B


46. Put option is valuable when:

A. Price expected to rise
B. Price expected to fall
C. Price stable
D. Dividend paid
Answer: B


47. Speculator expecting price increase should:

A. Buy put
B. Sell call
C. Buy call
D. Short futures
Answer: C


48. Maximum loss for put writer:

A. Unlimited
B. Strike price – Premium
C. Premium
D. Zero
Answer: B


49. Derivatives are primarily used for:

A. Tax avoidance
B. Risk management
C. Dividend declaration
D. Accounting entries
Answer: B


50. Basis risk arises when:

A. Hedge imperfectly offsets exposure
B. No premium paid
C. Option expires
D. Futures standardized
Answer: A


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MCQ questions on Operating leverage & Financial Leverage

 

Here are 30 MCQ Questions  on Operating Leverage, Financial Leverage, Combined Leverage (DOL, DFL, DCL/DTL) – aligned with US CMA Part 2 (Corporate Finance) syllabus.SOLVE FIRST THEN CHECK ✔️ YOURSELF,ANSWERS AT THE END.


✅ MCQs on Operating & Financial Leverage

1. Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) measures:

A. Sensitivity of EPS to EBIT
B. Sensitivity of EBIT to sales
C. Sensitivity of sales to fixed cost
D. Sensitivity of net income to tax

Answer: 


2. A company has high fixed costs and low variable costs. It most likely has:

A. Low operating leverage
B. High operating leverage
C. Low financial leverage
D. No leverage

Answer: 


3. DOL at a given sales level is calculated as:

A. Contribution Margin / Net Income
B. EBIT / Contribution Margin
C. Contribution Margin / EBIT
D. Sales / Variable Cost

Answer: 


4. If sales increase by 10% and EBIT increases by 30%, DOL equals:

A. 0.33
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. 2

Answer: 


5. Financial leverage arises due to:

A. Fixed operating costs
B. Variable costs
C. Fixed financial costs
D. Taxes

Answer: 


6. Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) measures:

A. Sensitivity of EBIT to sales
B. Sensitivity of EPS to EBIT
C. Sensitivity of sales to EPS
D. Sensitivity of EBIT to fixed cost

Answer: 


7. DFL formula at a given EBIT level:

A. EBIT / EBT
B. Contribution / EBIT
C. Sales / EBIT
D. Net Income / EBIT

Answer: 


8. If EBIT increases by 20% and EPS increases by 40%, DFL is:

A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4

Answer: 


9. Combined Leverage (DCL or DTL) equals:

A. DOL + DFL
B. DOL – DFL
C. DOL × DFL
D. DOL / DFL

Answer: 


10. DCL measures:

A. Sensitivity of EPS to sales
B. Sensitivity of EBIT to sales
C. Sensitivity of sales to EPS
D. Sensitivity of EPS to EBIT

Answer: 


🔢 Numerical Based MCQs

11. Sales = $500,000; Variable Cost = $300,000; Fixed Cost = $100,000.

DOL equals:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

Contribution = 200,000
EBIT = 100,000
DOL = 200,000 / 100,000 = 2

Answer: 


12. EBIT = $200,000; Interest = $50,000

DFL equals:

A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 4
D. 0.75

DFL = 200,000 / 150,000 = 1.33

Answer: 


13. If DOL = 2 and DFL = 3, DCL equals:

A. 5
B. 6
C. 1
D. 0.67

Answer: 


14. If sales increase 10% and DCL = 4, EPS will increase:

A. 40%
B. 4%
C. 14%
D. 10%

Answer: 


15. A firm with no debt will have:

A. DFL = 0
B. DFL = 1
C. DFL > 1
D. Negative DFL

Answer: 


16. At break-even point, DOL is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. Very high (infinite)
D. Negative

Answer: 


17. Which increases operating leverage?

A. Increasing variable cost
B. Increasing fixed cost
C. Decreasing sales
D. Increasing tax

Answer: 


18. Which increases financial leverage?

A. Issuing equity
B. Reducing debt
C. Increasing debt
D. Increasing variable cost

Answer: 


19. High DOL implies:

A. Low business risk
B. High business risk
C. Low financial risk
D. No risk

Answer: 


20. High DFL implies:

A. High business risk
B. High financial risk
C. Low EPS volatility
D. No bankruptcy risk

Answer: 


📊 Advanced / Conceptual MCQs

21. If a firm substitutes fixed costs for variable costs:

A. Break-even decreases
B. Operating leverage decreases
C. Operating leverage increases
D. Financial leverage increases

Answer: 


22. If EBIT = Interest, DFL will be:

A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinite
D. Negative

Answer: 


23. Combined leverage risk is highest when:

A. Fixed operating and financial costs are low
B. Fixed operating costs are low and debt is zero
C. Both operating and financial leverage are high
D. Sales are stable

Answer: 


24. Contribution margin ratio is important in calculating:

A. DFL
B. DOL
C. EPS
D. Tax shield

Answer: 


25. Which leverage affects EBIT?

A. Financial leverage
B. Combined leverage
C. Operating leverage
D. Tax leverage

Answer: 


26. Which leverage affects EPS directly?

A. Operating leverage only
B. Financial leverage
C. Sales leverage
D. Working capital leverage

Answer: 


27. If DOL = 1, it indicates:

A. No fixed operating cost
B. High fixed cost
C. High debt
D. Break-even

Answer: 


28. A firm near break-even should:

A. Increase debt
B. Reduce fixed costs
C. Increase DOL
D. Increase DFL

Answer: 


29. If sales fall 5% and DCL = 3, EPS will:

A. Increase 15%
B. Decrease 15%
C. Decrease 3%
D. Increase 3%

Answer: 


30. Optimal capital structure balances:

A. Sales and variable cost
B. Business risk and financial risk
C. Contribution and EBIT
D. Tax and dividend

Answer: 


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ANSWERS:


✅ MCQs on Operating & Financial Leverage

1. Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) measures:

A. Sensitivity of EPS to EBIT
B. Sensitivity of EBIT to sales
C. Sensitivity of sales to fixed cost
D. Sensitivity of net income to tax

Answer: B


2. A company has high fixed costs and low variable costs. It most likely has:

A. Low operating leverage
B. High operating leverage
C. Low financial leverage
D. No leverage

Answer: B


3. DOL at a given sales level is calculated as:

A. Contribution Margin / Net Income
B. EBIT / Contribution Margin
C. Contribution Margin / EBIT
D. Sales / Variable Cost

Answer: C


4. If sales increase by 10% and EBIT increases by 30%, DOL equals:

A. 0.33
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. 2

Answer: B
(30% / 10% = 3)


5. Financial leverage arises due to:

A. Fixed operating costs
B. Variable costs
C. Fixed financial costs
D. Taxes

Answer: C


6. Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) measures:

A. Sensitivity of EBIT to sales
B. Sensitivity of EPS to EBIT
C. Sensitivity of sales to EPS
D. Sensitivity of EBIT to fixed cost

Answer: B


7. DFL formula at a given EBIT level:

A. EBIT / EBT
B. Contribution / EBIT
C. Sales / EBIT
D. Net Income / EBIT

Answer: A


8. If EBIT increases by 20% and EPS increases by 40%, DFL is:

A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4

Answer: B
(40% / 20% = 2)


9. Combined Leverage (DCL or DTL) equals:

A. DOL + DFL
B. DOL – DFL
C. DOL × DFL
D. DOL / DFL

Answer: C


10. DCL measures:

A. Sensitivity of EPS to sales
B. Sensitivity of EBIT to sales
C. Sensitivity of sales to EPS
D. Sensitivity of EPS to EBIT

Answer: A


🔢 Numerical Based MCQs

11. Sales = $500,000; Variable Cost = $300,000; Fixed Cost = $100,000.

DOL equals:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

Contribution = 200,000
EBIT = 100,000
DOL = 200,000 / 100,000 = 2

Answer: B


12. EBIT = $200,000; Interest = $50,000

DFL equals:

A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 4
D. 0.75

DFL = 200,000 / 150,000 = 1.33

Answer: A


13. If DOL = 2 and DFL = 3, DCL equals:

A. 5
B. 6
C. 1
D. 0.67

Answer: B


14. If sales increase 10% and DCL = 4, EPS will increase:

A. 40%
B. 4%
C. 14%
D. 10%

Answer: A


15. A firm with no debt will have:

A. DFL = 0
B. DFL = 1
C. DFL > 1
D. Negative DFL

Answer: B


16. At break-even point, DOL is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. Very high (infinite)
D. Negative

Answer: C


17. Which increases operating leverage?

A. Increasing variable cost
B. Increasing fixed cost
C. Decreasing sales
D. Increasing tax

Answer: B


18. Which increases financial leverage?

A. Issuing equity
B. Reducing debt
C. Increasing debt
D. Increasing variable cost

Answer: C


19. High DOL implies:

A. Low business risk
B. High business risk
C. Low financial risk
D. No risk

Answer: B


20. High DFL implies:

A. High business risk
B. High financial risk
C. Low EPS volatility
D. No bankruptcy risk

Answer: B


📊 Advanced / Conceptual MCQs

21. If a firm substitutes fixed costs for variable costs:

A. Break-even decreases
B. Operating leverage decreases
C. Operating leverage increases
D. Financial leverage increases

Answer: C


22. If EBIT = Interest, DFL will be:

A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinite
D. Negative

Answer: C


23. Combined leverage risk is highest when:

A. Fixed operating and financial costs are low
B. Fixed operating costs are low and debt is zero
C. Both operating and financial leverage are high
D. Sales are stable

Answer: C


24. Contribution margin ratio is important in calculating:

A. DFL
B. DOL
C. EPS
D. Tax shield

Answer: B


25. Which leverage affects EBIT?

A. Financial leverage
B. Combined leverage
C. Operating leverage
D. Tax leverage

Answer: C


26. Which leverage affects EPS directly?

A. Operating leverage only
B. Financial leverage
C. Sales leverage
D. Working capital leverage

Answer: B


27. If DOL = 1, it indicates:

A. No fixed operating cost
B. High fixed cost
C. High debt
D. Break-even

Answer: A


28. A firm near break-even should:

A. Increase debt
B. Reduce fixed costs
C. Increase DOL
D. Increase DFL

Answer: B


29. If sales fall 5% and DCL = 3, EPS will:

A. Increase 15%
B. Decrease 15%
C. Decrease 3%
D. Increase 3%

Answer: B


30. Optimal capital structure balances:

A. Sales and variable cost
B. Business risk and financial risk
C. Contribution and EBIT
D. Tax and dividend

Answer: B


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Wednesday, February 11, 2026

MCQ questions on Corporate finance

 

Here are 50 MCQs – Corporate Finance (US CMA Part 2) Please solve 
Topics include: Risk & Return, CAPM, Cost of Capital, Capital Budgeting, Working Capital, Leverage, Dividend Policy, Valuation, etc.


Risk & Return

1. Holding Period Return (HPR) equals:
A. (Ending price – Beginning price) / Ending price
B. (Income + Price change) / Beginning price
C. Dividend / Market price
D. Net income / Investment
Answer: 


2. Expected return of a portfolio is:
A. Weighted average of returns
B. Simple average
C. Highest return
D. Risk-free rate
Answer: 


3. Standard deviation measures:
A. Systematic risk
B. Total risk
C. Beta
D. Market risk only
Answer: 


4. Beta measures:
A. Firm-specific risk
B. Market risk sensitivity
C. Liquidity
D. Profitability
Answer: 


5. A beta greater than 1 implies:
A. Less volatile than market
B. More volatile than market
C. No risk
D. Risk-free
Answer: 


6. CAPM formula is:
A. Rf + β (Rm – Rf)
B. Rm + β
C. Rf – β
D. β / Rm
Answer: 


7. Market risk premium equals:
A. Rm
B. Rf
C. Rm – Rf
D. β – Rf
Answer: 


8. Diversification reduces:
A. Market risk
B. Systematic risk
C. Unsystematic risk
D. Beta
Answer: 


9. Coefficient of variation equals:
A. Return / Risk
B. Risk / Return
C. Beta × Return
D. SD × Return
Answer: 


10. Higher CV indicates:
A. Less risk
B. Better investment
C. Higher risk per unit of return
D. Lower volatility
Answer: 


Cost of Capital

11. WACC weights are based on:
A. Book values only
B. Market values
C. Par value
D. Historical cost
Answer: 


12. After-tax cost of debt equals:
A. Kd
B. Kd (1 – t)
C. Kd + t
D. Kd / (1 – t)
Answer: 


13. Cost of preferred stock equals:
A. D / P
B. D / P (1 – t)
C. P / D
D. Rf + β
Answer: 


14. Retained earnings cost is estimated using:
A. CAPM or DDM
B. Book value
C. Tax rate
D. EPS
Answer: 


15. Flotation costs increase:
A. Cost of retained earnings
B. Cost of new equity
C. Cost of debt
D. WACC always decreases
Answer: 


Capital Budgeting

16. NPV method assumes reinvestment at:
A. IRR
B. Cost of capital
C. Risk-free rate
D. Zero rate
Answer: 


17. IRR is the rate that makes:
A. PI zero
B. NPV zero
C. Cash flow zero
D. Revenue zero
Answer: 


18. Accept project if NPV is:
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Less than IRR
Answer: 


19. Payback period ignores:
A. Cash flows
B. Time value of money
C. Initial investment
D. Risk
Answer: 


20. Discounted payback considers:
A. Inflation only
B. Time value of money
C. Accounting profit
D. Dividends
Answer: 


21. Profitability Index equals:
A. PV inflows / PV outflows
B. Inflows – Outflows
C. IRR / Cost
D. Net income / Investment
Answer: 


22. Mutually exclusive projects require selection of:
A. All projects
B. One best project
C. None
D. Average return
Answer: 


23. Sunk costs are:
A. Relevant
B. Incremental
C. Irrelevant
D. Opportunity cost
Answer: 


24. Opportunity cost is:
A. Historical cost
B. Forgone benefit
C. Fixed cost
D. Tax expense
Answer: 


25. Depreciation tax shield equals:
A. Depreciation × Tax rate
B. Depreciation / Tax
C. Tax × Revenue
D. Revenue × Depreciation
Answer: 


Working Capital Management

26. Operating cycle equals:
A. Inventory + Payables
B. Inventory + Receivables
C. Receivables – Payables
D. Cash + Receivables
Answer: 


27. Cash conversion cycle equals:
A. OC + Payables
B. OC – Payables period
C. Receivables period only
D. Inventory – Receivables
Answer: 


28. Conservative policy means:
A. High short-term debt
B. High current assets
C. Low liquidity
D. High risk
Answer: 


29. Factoring improves:
A. Profit margin
B. Liquidity
C. Leverage
D. Fixed assets
Answer: 


30. EOQ minimizes:
A. Ordering + Carrying costs
B. Revenue
C. Profit
D. Taxes
Answer: 


Leverage

31. Operating leverage relates to:
A. Fixed operating costs
B. Debt
C. Equity
D. Dividends
Answer: 


32. Financial leverage relates to:
A. Fixed operating cost
B. Fixed financing cost
C. Variable cost
D. Inventory
Answer: 


33. Degree of operating leverage (DOL) measures:
A. EBIT sensitivity to sales
B. EPS sensitivity
C. Debt level
D. Market risk
Answer: 


34. Combined leverage measures sensitivity of:
A. EBIT to sales
B. EPS to sales
C. Sales to cost
D. Cash to debt
Answer:


Dividend Policy

35. Residual dividend theory suggests dividends are paid from:
A. Debt
B. Residual earnings after investment
C. Revenue
D. Cash only
Answer: 


36. Modigliani-Miller dividend theory assumes:
A. Perfect capital market
B. High taxes
C. Bankruptcy cost
D. Information asymmetry
Answer: 


37. Dividend payout ratio equals:
A. Dividend / Net income
B. Net income / Dividend
C. Dividend / Revenue
D. Dividend / Assets
Answer: 


Valuation

38. Gordon Growth Model value equals:
A. D1 / (r – g)
B. D0 / r
C. EPS / r
D. D1 × r
Answer: 


39. If growth rate exceeds required return:
A. Value negative
B. Model invalid
C. Value zero
D. Accept project
Answer: 


40. Bond value equals:
A. PV of coupons only
B. PV of principal only
C. PV of coupons + PV of principal
D. Face value
Answer: 


41. Bond sells at premium when:
A. Coupon < Market rate
B. Coupon > Market rate
C. Coupon = Market rate
D. Zero coupon
Answer: 


42. Yield to maturity is:
A. Coupon rate
B. Market rate
C. IRR of bond cash flows
D. Dividend yield
Answer: 


Risk Analysis in Capital Budgeting

43. Sensitivity analysis changes:
A. All variables together
B. One variable at a time
C. Tax rate only
D. Interest only
Answer: 


44. Scenario analysis evaluates:
A. Single outcome
B. Multiple combined changes
C. No change
D. Historical cost
Answer: 


45. Certainty equivalent approach adjusts:
A. Discount rate
B. Cash flows for risk
C. Taxes
D. Depreciation
Answer: 


46. Risk-adjusted discount rate approach adjusts:
A. Cash flows
B. Discount rate
C. Investment cost
D. Revenue
Answer: 


Mergers & Capital Structure

47. Optimal capital structure minimizes:
A. EPS
B. WACC
C. Revenue
D. Debt
Answer: 


48. Trade-off theory balances:
A. Risk & Return
B. Tax shield & Bankruptcy cost
C. Sales & Profit
D. Equity & Revenue
Answer: 


49. Pecking order theory prefers financing in order of:
A. Equity → Debt → Internal
B. Internal → Debt → Equity
C. Debt → Equity → Internal
D. Equity only
Answer: 


50. Financial distress cost increases when:
A. Debt increases significantly
B. Equity increases
C. Profit increases
D. WACC decreases
Answer: 


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Basic financial accounting concepts MCQ

 

Here are 50 MCQs covering Basic Financial Accounting Concepts (US GAAP focus) – US CMA Level:


1. Under US GAAP, revenue is recognized when:

A. Cash is received
B. Performance obligation is satisfied
C. Invoice is issued
D. Contract is signed
Answer: 


2. Basic EPS is calculated as:

A. Net income / Total shares issued
B. Net income / Weighted avg. shares outstanding
C. Net income / Ending shares
D. EBIT / Shares
Answer: 


3. Diluted EPS considers:

A. Only common shares
B. Potentially dilutive securities
C. Treasury stock only
D. Preferred dividends only
Answer: 


4. If convertible bonds are dilutive, diluted EPS requires:

A. Subtracting interest (after tax) from numerator
B. Adding interest (after tax) to numerator
C. Ignoring interest
D. Reducing shares
Answer: 


5. Capital maintenance concept focuses on:

A. Cash balance
B. Maintaining purchasing power of capital
C. Profit distribution
D. Dividend policy
Answer: 


6. Under proprietary theory, income belongs to:

A. Company
B. Creditors
C. Owners
D. Government
Answer: 


7. Under entity theory, the business is separate from:

A. Customers
B. Owners
C. Suppliers
D. Employees
Answer: 


8. Residuary theory emphasizes rights of:

A. Creditors
B. Government
C. Equity shareholders
D. Employees
Answer: 


9. Depreciable assets exclude:

A. Building
B. Machinery
C. Land
D. Equipment
Answer: 


10. Depreciation is allocation of:

A. Market value
B. Replacement cost
C. Historical cost over useful life
D. Cash flow
Answer: 


11. Amortization generally applies to:

A. Tangible assets
B. Intangible assets
C. Inventory
D. Land
Answer: 


12. Liquidity measures ability to:

A. Earn profits
B. Pay long-term debt
C. Pay short-term obligations
D. Issue shares
Answer: 


13. Solvency measures:

A. Short-term liquidity
B. Long-term financial stability
C. Inventory turnover
D. Profit margin
Answer: 


14. Leverage refers to use of:

A. Equity only
B. Debt financing
C. Inventory
D. Cash
Answer: 


15. Capital gearing relates to proportion of:

A. Current assets
B. Debt vs equity
C. Revenue
D. Expenses
Answer: 


16. High capital gearing means:

A. Low debt
B. High equity
C. High fixed interest bearing securities
D. No preference shares
Answer: 


17. Going concern assumption implies business will:

A. Liquidate soon
B. Continue operations
C. Merge
D. Be sold
Answer: 


18. Accrual concept requires:

A. Cash basis recording
B. Recording when earned/incurred
C. Ignoring expenses
D. Delaying revenue
Answer: 


19. Conservatism convention means:

A. Overstate income
B. Understate liabilities
C. Recognize probable losses
D. Record gains early
Answer: 


20. Consistency concept requires:

A. Same accounting method over periods
B. Changing methods yearly
C. Ignoring standards
D. Reporting cash only
Answer: 


21. Stock dividend results in:

A. Decrease in total equity
B. No change in total equity
C. Increase in assets
D. Decrease in liabilities
Answer: 


22. Stock split affects:

A. Total equity
B. Par value per share
C. Retained earnings
D. Net income
Answer: 


23. Property dividend is:

A. Cash dividend
B. Dividend paid in assets other than cash
C. Stock dividend
D. Liquidating dividend
Answer: 


24. Upon declaration of cash dividend:

A. Assets decrease
B. Liability increases
C. Equity increases
D. Revenue increases
Answer: 


25. Upon payment of dividend:

A. Liability increases
B. Cash increases
C. Liability decreases
D. Equity increases
Answer: 


26. Gross profit equals:

A. Sales – Operating expenses
B. Sales – COGS
C. Net income + tax
D. Sales – Tax
Answer: 


27. Net income equals:

A. Revenue – All expenses
B. Revenue – COGS
C. Assets – Liabilities
D. Equity – Dividends
Answer: 


28. Under US GAAP, extraordinary items are:

A. Separately reported
B. Prohibited classification
C. Shown in OCI
D. Reported before tax
Answer: 


29. Prior period adjustment is reported in:

A. Current income statement
B. Retained earnings (beginning balance)
C. OCI
D. Cash flow
Answer: 


30. Other Comprehensive Income includes:

A. Sales revenue
B. Unrealized gain on AFS securities
C. COGS
D. Dividends
Answer: 


31. Under IFRS, revaluation surplus is shown in:

A. P&L
B. OCI
C. Assets only
D. Liability
Answer: 


32. US GAAP does NOT allow:

A. LIFO
B. FIFO
C. Revaluation of PPE upward
D. Historical cost
Answer: 


33. Preference dividends are treated as:

A. Expense
B. Finance cost
C. Distribution of profit
D. Liability
Answer: 


34. In EPS calculation, preferred dividends are:

A. Added
B. Ignored
C. Subtracted from net income
D. Treated as expense
Answer: 


35. Preemptive right allows shareholders to:

A. Receive dividend first
B. Buy additional shares first
C. Vote twice
D. Sell shares early
Answer: 


36. Voting rights generally belong to:

A. Preference shareholders
B. Bondholders
C. Common shareholders
D. Creditors
Answer: 


37. Treasury stock is recorded at:

A. Par value
B. Cost
C. Market value
D. Face value
Answer: 


38. Treasury stock reduces:

A. Assets
B. Liabilities
C. Equity
D. Revenue
Answer: 


39. Purchase of treasury stock results in:

A. Increase in assets
B. Decrease in equity
C. Increase in revenue
D. Increase in liabilities
Answer: 


40. Treasury stock has:

A. Voting rights
B. Dividend rights
C. No voting or dividend rights
D. Priority rights
Answer: 


41. Financial leverage increases:

A. Operating risk only
B. Financial risk
C. Liquidity
D. Inventory
Answer: 


42. Current ratio measures:

A. Profitability
B. Liquidity
C. Solvency
D. Leverage
Answer: 


43. Debt-to-equity ratio measures:

A. Liquidity
B. Profitability
C. Solvency
D. Revenue
Answer: 


44. Return on equity measures:

A. Liquidity
B. Profitability
C. Asset turnover
D. Inventory
Answer: 


45. Accumulated depreciation is:

A. Expense
B. Contra asset
C. Liability
D. Revenue
Answer: 


46. Comprehensive income equals:

A. Net income only
B. Net income + OCI
C. Revenue – Expenses
D. Cash flow
Answer: 


47. Amortization of bond discount increases:

A. Cash
B. Interest expense
C. Revenue
D. Equity
Answer: 


48. Stock dividend transfers amount from:

A. Assets to liabilities
B. Retained earnings to paid-in capital
C. Cash to equity
D. Revenue to expense
Answer: 


49. Liquidating dividend reduces:

A. Retained earnings
B. Contributed capital
C. Revenue
D. Assets only
Answer: 


50. Financial capital maintenance approach defines profit as:

A. Increase in physical capacity
B. Increase in net assets excluding owner contributions
C. Cash surplus
D. Revenue increase
Answer: 


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Monday, February 9, 2026

MCQ Questions on Internal control, corporate governance,risk Assessment and accounting information systems



INTERNAL CONTROL – 50 MCQs (US CMA PART 1)


1. Internal Control – Meaning & COSO

Q1. According to COSO, internal control is best described as a process designed to provide:
A. Absolute assurance regarding fraud prevention
B. Reasonable assurance regarding objectives
C. Legal compliance only
D. Risk elimination

Answer: 


Q2. COSO defines internal control as a process effected by:
A. Only top management
B. Only auditors
C. Board of directors, management, and other personnel
D. External consultants

Answer: 


Q3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of internal control under COSO?
A. Effectiveness and efficiency of operations
B. Reliability of financial reporting
C. Elimination of business risk
D. Compliance with laws and regulations

Answer: 


2. COSO Components

Q4. Which COSO component establishes the foundation for all other components?
A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Information & communication
D. Control environment

Answer: 


Q5. Management identifying and analyzing risks relevant to achieving objectives relates to:
A. Monitoring
B. Risk assessment
C. Control activities
D. Information systems

Answer: 


Q6. Policies and procedures that ensure management directives are carried out are called:
A. Control environment
B. Monitoring
C. Control activities
D. Risk assessment

Answer: 


Q7. Continuous evaluations of internal controls fall under:
A. Monitoring
B. Risk assessment
C. Information & communication
D. Control environment

Answer: 


3. Types of Internal Controls

Q8. Which control is designed to stop an error before it occurs?
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventive
D. Compensating

Answer: 


Q9. A bank reconciliation primarily serves as a:
A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Application control

Answer: 


Q10. Backup data restoration after system failure is a:
A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Monitoring control

Answer: 


Q11. A control that reduces risk when a primary control fails is called:
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Compensating
D. Monitoring

Answer: 


4. Preventive, Detective & Corrective – Examples

Q12. Which is a preventive control?
A. Internal audit review
B. Authorization of transactions
C. Reconciliation of accounts
D. Error correction entry

Answer: 


Q13. Which is a detective control?
A. Password policy
B. Segregation of duties
C. Exception reports
D. Access control

Answer: 


Q14. Reprocessing rejected transactions represents a:
A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Compensating control

Answer: 


5. Complementary / Compensating Controls

Q15. Lack of segregation of duties in a small company is best addressed by:
A. Eliminating transactions
B. Hiring more staff
C. Owner’s independent review
D. Ignoring the risk

Answer: 


Q16. Compensating controls are most commonly used when:
A. Risks are eliminated
B. Preventive controls exist
C. Ideal controls are not feasible
D. Auditors require them

Answer: 


6. Inherent Limitations of Internal Control

Q17. Which is an inherent limitation of internal control?
A. Poor documentation
B. Human judgment errors
C. Lack of management support
D. Weak governance

Answer: 


Q18. Internal control cannot provide absolute assurance mainly because of:
A. Technology failure
B. Cost-benefit constraints
C. External audits
D. Regulatory oversight

Answer: 


Q19. Management override of controls is a risk related to:
A. Control activities
B. Monitoring
C. Inherent limitations
D. Risk assessment

Answer: 


7. General Controls & Application Controls

Q20. General IT controls primarily relate to:
A. Specific transaction processing
B. Overall IT environment
C. Data input validation
D. Report accuracy

Answer: 


Q21. Which is a general control?
A. Edit checks
B. User access security
C. Input validation
D. Batch totals

Answer: 


Q22. Which is an application control?
A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Program change control
C. Authorization checks
D. Logical access policy

Answer: 


Q23. Application controls ensure:
A. Proper functioning of IT infrastructure
B. Accuracy and completeness of transactions
C. Segregation of IT duties
D. Data backup

Answer: 


8. Corporate Governance & Internal Control

Q24. Primary responsibility for internal control rests with:
A. Internal auditors
B. Audit committee
C. External auditors
D. Management

Answer: 


Q25. The audit committee enhances internal control mainly by:
A. Preparing financial statements
B. Overseeing financial reporting and controls
C. Managing daily operations
D. Approving transactions

Answer: 


Q26. Strong corporate governance improves internal control by:
A. Eliminating risk
B. Increasing audit fees
C. Enhancing oversight and accountability
D. Reducing regulation

Answer: 


9. Sarbanes–Oxley Act (SOX)

Q27. Section 302 of SOX requires:
A. Auditor attestation on controls
B. Management certification of financial reports
C. Mandatory internal audit
D. Risk elimination

Answer: 


Q28. Under SOX Section 302, CEOs and CFOs must certify:
A. Audit opinion
B. Effectiveness of internal controls
C. Tax returns
D. Budget accuracy

Answer: 


Q29. Section 404 of SOX focuses on:
A. Fraud prevention
B. Management assessment of internal control effectiveness
C. Corporate governance rules
D. Audit committee formation

Answer: 


Q30. Section 404 requires:
A. Only management report
B. Only auditor report
C. Both management assessment and auditor attestation
D. No reporting

Answer: 


10. Identifying Weaknesses in Internal Control

Q31. A material weakness indicates:
A. Minor error
B. Significant deficiency
C. Reasonable possibility of material misstatement
D. No risk

Answer: 


Q32. Which is most likely a control weakness?
A. Independent review
B. Lack of segregation of duties
C. Authorization procedures
D. Monitoring activities

Answer: 


Q33. Which tool helps identify control weaknesses?
A. Bank loans
B. Walkthroughs and testing
C. Budgeting
D. Forecasting

Answer: 


11. Resolving Internal Control Issues

Q34. The best response to identified control deficiencies is to:
A. Ignore immaterial issues
B. Implement corrective actions
C. Delay until audit
D. Transfer risk

Answer: 


Q35. Which action strengthens internal control?
A. Increasing transaction volume
B. Enhancing segregation of duties
C. Reducing documentation
D. Removing monitoring

Answer: 


Q36. Training employees improves internal control by enhancing:
A. Fraud opportunity
B. Control environment
C. Risk elimination
D. Monitoring cost

Answer: 


12. Integrated & Scenario-Based Questions

Q37. An organization with strong preventive controls but weak detective controls faces risk of:
A. Errors not occurring
B. Errors not being identified timely
C. Absolute assurance
D. No risk

Answer: 


Q38. If management ignores known control weaknesses, this affects:
A. Risk assessment
B. Control environment
C. Monitoring
D. Application control

Answer: 


Q39. Excessive reliance on manual controls increases risk of:
A. Automation errors
B. Human error
C. IT failures
D. Cyber risk

Answer: 


Q40. Which control best mitigates management override risk?
A. Authorization
B. Audit committee oversight
C. Input validation
D. Backup systems

Answer: 


13. Advanced CMA-Level Questions

Q41. A control that is effective but too costly violates which principle?
A. Reasonable assurance
B. Segregation of duties
C. Control activities
D. Monitoring

Answer: 


Q42. Which COSO component is most impacted by unethical leadership?
A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Control environment
D. Monitoring

Answer: 


Q43. Poor documentation primarily affects:
A. Preventive controls
B. Detective controls
C. Monitoring
D. Information & communication

Answer: 


Q44. Unauthorized program changes indicate weakness in:
A. Application control
B. Input control
C. General control
D. Monitoring

Answer: 


Q45. Batch totals are used to ensure:
A. System security
B. Data completeness
C. Disaster recovery
D. User authorization

Answer: 


14. Final Conceptual MCQs

Q46. Which statement about internal control is TRUE?
A. It guarantees fraud prevention
B. It provides reasonable assurance
C. It eliminates business risk
D. It replaces management responsibility

Answer: 


Q47. Internal audit primarily assists management by:
A. Managing operations
B. Designing strategy
C. Evaluating internal controls
D. Preparing financials

Answer: 


Q48. Continuous monitoring of controls improves:
A. Risk elimination
B. Timely detection of issues
C. Audit independence
D. Cost reduction only

Answer: 


Q49. Which factor most weakens internal control effectiveness?
A. Strong governance
B. Ethical culture
C. Management override
D. Automation

Answer: 


Q50. The ultimate goal of an internal control system is to:
A. Reduce audit work
B. Prevent all fraud
C. Achieve organizational objectives
D. Increase compliance cost

Answer: 


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Got it 👍
Here are US CMA Part 1–style MCQs with answers on Corporate Governance, Board Duties, Audit Committee Duties, and Management Responsibilities for effective operations & internal control.
These are conceptual, exam-oriented, and slightly tricky, exactly how CMA likes them.


CORPORATE GOVERNANCE & INTERNAL CONTROL

MCQs (US CMA PART 1)


A. Corporate Governance – Concepts

Q1. Corporate governance primarily focuses on:
A. Day-to-day operations
B. Maximizing short-term profits
C. Accountability, fairness, and transparency
D. External audit procedures

Answer: 


Q2. The primary objective of corporate governance is to:
A. Eliminate business risk
B. Protect stakeholder interests
C. Replace management decisions
D. Reduce operational costs

Answer: 


Q3. Which of the following is a key mechanism of corporate governance?
A. Operational budgeting
B. Board of directors
C. Employee training
D. Internal audit planning

Answer: 


Q4. Strong corporate governance is MOST likely to result in:
A. Increased fraud risk
B. Improved internal control effectiveness
C. Elimination of internal audits
D. Reduced regulatory compliance

Answer: 


B. Board of Directors – Duties & Responsibilities

Q5. The board of directors’ PRIMARY responsibility is to:
A. Prepare financial statements
B. Manage daily operations
C. Oversee management and strategy
D. Perform internal audits

Answer: 


Q6. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the board of directors?
A. Approving major policies
B. Hiring and evaluating the CEO
C. Performing transaction authorization
D. Overseeing risk management

Answer: 


Q7. The board ensures ethical conduct primarily through:
A. Budget control
B. Code of conduct and tone at the top
C. External audits
D. Performance incentives

Answer: 


Q8. Which board responsibility most directly supports effective internal control?
A. Selecting accounting methods
B. Establishing audit committee
C. Approving journal entries
D. Reconciling bank accounts

Answer: 


Q9. The board’s oversight role reduces which risk most significantly?
A. Market risk
B. Management override risk
C. Currency risk
D. Liquidity risk

Answer: 


C. Audit Committee – Duties & Responsibilities

Q10. The audit committee primarily serves as a link between:
A. Management and employees
B. External auditors and internal auditors
C. Board of directors and auditors
D. Regulators and management

Answer: 


Q11. Which of the following is a key responsibility of the audit committee?
A. Preparing financial statements
B. Overseeing financial reporting integrity
C. Approving operational budgets
D. Managing company operations

Answer: 


Q12. Audit committee members should be:
A. Company executives
B. Independent directors
C. Internal auditors
D. External consultants

Answer: 


Q13. Which activity BEST supports audit committee independence?
A. Participation in daily operations
B. Direct communication with external auditors
C. Authorizing transactions
D. Designing control activities

Answer: 


Q14. The audit committee is directly responsible for overseeing:
A. Strategic planning
B. Internal control over financial reporting
C. Marketing strategy
D. Employee performance

Answer: 


Q15. Which function typically reports functionally to the audit committee?
A. Operations
B. Marketing
C. Internal audit
D. Human resources

Answer: 


D. Management Responsibilities – Operations & Internal Control

Q16. Management is primarily responsible for:
A. Auditing internal controls
B. Designing and implementing internal controls
C. Approving audit opinions
D. Ensuring auditor independence

Answer: 


Q17. Which management responsibility MOST directly affects operational effectiveness?
A. External audit coordination
B. Risk assessment and control design
C. Board evaluation
D. Regulatory enforcement

Answer: 


Q18. Management demonstrates commitment to internal control by:
A. Delegating all control activities
B. Establishing clear policies and procedures
C. Eliminating detective controls
D. Reducing documentation

Answer: 


Q19. Management override of controls is primarily a failure of:
A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Monitoring
D. Control environment

Answer: 


Q20. Which action by management strengthens the control environment?
A. Ignoring minor violations
B. Promoting ethical values
C. Increasing transaction volume
D. Limiting audit access

Answer: 


E. Effective Internal Control System – Integrated View

Q21. An effective internal control system provides:
A. Absolute assurance
B. Reasonable assurance
C. Guaranteed fraud prevention
D. Complete risk elimination

Answer: 


Q22. Segregation of duties is MOST closely related to which COSO component?
A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Monitoring
D. Information & communication

Answer: 


Q23. Continuous evaluations of controls are part of:
A. Control environment
B. Risk assessment
C. Monitoring
D. Governance

Answer: 


Q24. A strong internal control system is LEAST effective when:
A. Board oversight is weak
B. Controls are documented
C. Risks are assessed
D. Monitoring exists

Answer: 


Q25. Which factor MOST enhances internal control effectiveness?
A. Increased automation only
B. Strong tone at the top
C. High transaction volume
D. External regulation

Answer: 


F. Scenario-Based / CMA-Style Questions

Q26. If the board fails to challenge management decisions, the greatest risk is:
A. Market volatility
B. Management override of controls
C. Increased audit cost
D. Operational inefficiency only

Answer: 


Q27. An audit committee that lacks financial expertise increases risk related to:
A. Strategic planning
B. Financial reporting reliability
C. Operational efficiency
D. Employee morale

Answer: 


Q28. Management focusing only on financial controls but ignoring operational controls may result in:
A. Strong governance
B. Ineffective operations
C. Better compliance
D. Reduced risk

Answer: 


Q29. Which action BEST demonstrates effective governance?
A. CEO dominance over board
B. Independent audit committee oversight
C. Limited internal audit access
D. Management-only risk assessment

Answer: 


Q30. In an effective governance structure, internal audit should report:
A. Administratively to CFO and functionally to audit committee
B. Only to management
C. Only to external auditors
D. Only to regulators

Answer: 


Exam Tip (CMA Favorite Area):

  • Board = Oversight
  • Audit Committee = Financial reporting & internal control oversight
  • Management = Design, implement & operate controls
  • Internal Control = Reasonable assurance, not guarantee

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RISK ASSESSMENT & INTERNAL CONTROL SYSTEM

MCQs (US CMA PART 1)


A. Risk Assessment – Core Concepts

Q1. Risk assessment under the COSO framework involves:
A. Eliminating all risks
B. Identifying and analyzing risks to achieving objectives
C. Detecting errors after occurrence
D. Implementing corrective controls

Answer: 


Q2. Risk assessment is MOST closely related to which COSO component?
A. Control environment
B. Control activities
C. Risk assessment
D. Monitoring

Answer: 


Q3. Which of the following BEST describes business risk?
A. Risk of audit failure
B. Risk of incorrect financial statements only
C. Risk that events will adversely affect achievement of objectives
D. Risk eliminated by internal controls

Answer: 


Q4. Which risk arises from ineffective or failed internal controls?
A. Inherent risk
B. Residual risk
C. Control risk
D. Detection risk

Answer: 


B. Risk Identification & Analysis

Q5. The FIRST step in risk assessment is to:
A. Design control activities
B. Identify relevant risks
C. Evaluate monitoring controls
D. Correct deficiencies

Answer: 


Q6. Which factor MOST affects risk assessment?
A. Changes in business environment
B. Historical audit findings only
C. External audit opinion
D. Accounting policies

Answer: 


Q7. Rapid growth in operations increases risk primarily due to:
A. Strong controls
B. Inadequate control adaptation
C. Improved governance
D. Reduced transactions

Answer: 


Q8. Risk assessment should be performed:
A. Once at formation
B. Only during audits
C. Continuously and periodically
D. Only after control failure

Answer: 


C. Inherent, Residual & Control Risk

Q9. Inherent risk is best described as:
A. Risk remaining after controls
B. Risk caused by auditors
C. Risk existing before controls
D. Risk eliminated by governance

Answer: 


Q10. Residual risk refers to:
A. Total business risk
B. Risk before controls
C. Risk remaining after controls
D. Detection risk

Answer: 


Q11. High inherent risk requires management to:
A. Ignore control design
B. Implement stronger controls
C. Eliminate monitoring
D. Reduce documentation

Answer: 


D. Risk Assessment & Internal Control Relationship

Q12. Risk assessment helps management to:
A. Detect errors
B. Determine appropriate control activities
C. Eliminate fraud
D. Replace monitoring

Answer: 


Q13. Failure to assess risk properly MOST likely results in:
A. Strong internal controls
B. Ineffective control activities
C. Reduced operational efficiency
D. Better compliance

Answer: 


Q14. Which internal control component is directly influenced by risk assessment outcomes?
A. Control environment
B. Control activities
C. Monitoring
D. Governance

Answer: 


E. Risk Response & Control Design

Q15. Which is NOT a common risk response?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk elimination

Answer: 


Q16. Implementing segregation of duties is primarily a response to:
A. Market risk
B. Control risk
C. Liquidity risk
D. Compliance risk

Answer: 


Q17. Which control BEST addresses high fraud risk?
A. Detective controls only
B. Preventive controls
C. No controls
D. Monitoring only

Answer: 


Q18. Compensating controls are MOST appropriate when:
A. Risks are eliminated
B. Primary controls are not feasible
C. Controls already exist
D. Auditors require them

Answer: 


F. Risk Assessment in Operations & Reporting

Q19. Risk assessment related to financial reporting focuses on:
A. Market volatility
B. Accuracy and reliability of financial statements
C. Employee performance
D. Customer satisfaction

Answer: 


Q20. Operational risk primarily affects:
A. Financial statement presentation
B. Efficiency and effectiveness of operations
C. Audit opinion
D. Compliance reporting

Answer: 


Q21. Compliance risk arises from:
A. Operational inefficiency
B. Failure to follow laws and regulations
C. Weak segregation of duties
D. System downtime

Answer: 


G. Monitoring Risk & Control Effectiveness

Q22. Continuous monitoring helps management to:
A. Eliminate risk
B. Identify control deficiencies timely
C. Replace risk assessment
D. Avoid governance oversight

Answer: 


Q23. Which indicates a failure in risk assessment?
A. Controls not aligned with risk level
B. Strong governance
C. Regular monitoring
D. Ethical leadership

Answer: 


H. Scenario-Based / CMA-Tricky Questions

Q24. Management identifies a high risk but implements weak controls. This indicates failure in:
A. Monitoring
B. Risk response
C. Information & communication
D. Control environment

Answer: 


Q25. A company with outdated risk assessments is MOST exposed to:
A. Reduced audit cost
B. Emerging risks
C. Strong control environment
D. Low residual risk

Answer: 


Q26. Excessive reliance on detective controls increases risk of:
A. Errors occurring
B. Late error detection
C. Strong prevention
D. Risk elimination

Answer: 


Q27. Management override risk should be considered during:
A. Risk identification
B. Control design
C. Monitoring
D. All of the above

Answer: 


I. Integrated COSO-Based Questions

Q28. Risk assessment interacts MOST closely with:
A. Control activities and monitoring
B. External audit
C. Budgeting
D. Financial reporting only

Answer: 


Q29. A well-designed internal control system reduces:
A. Inherent risk
B. Residual risk
C. Business uncertainty
D. External risk

Answer: 


Q30. The PRIMARY purpose of risk assessment in internal control is to:
A. Prevent all losses
B. Design effective and efficient controls
C. Reduce audit effort
D. Comply with regulations only

Answer: 


CMA Exam Quick Memory Aid

  • Risk Assessment = Identify → Analyze → Respond
  • Controls must match risk level
  • Risk is dynamic → assessment must be ongoing
  • Goal = Reduce residual risk to acceptable level 
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ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS (AIS) & INTERNAL Control 


A. Accounting Information System – Basics

Q1. The primary purpose of an Accounting Information System (AIS) is to:
A. Eliminate accounting errors
B. Collect, process, and report financial information
C. Replace management judgment
D. Detect fraud only

Answer: 


Q2. Which AIS component captures transaction data?
A. Output
B. Processing
C. Input
D. Storage

Answer: 


Q3. An effective AIS should provide information that is:
A. Complex and detailed
B. Timely, accurate, and relevant
C. Only historical
D. Only for auditors

Answer: 


B. AIS & Internal Control Relationship

Q4. Internal controls in AIS primarily ensure:
A. High profits
B. Data reliability and system integrity
C. Faster processing only
D. Reduced staffing

Answer: 


Q5. Which COSO objective is MOST directly supported by AIS?
A. Operational efficiency
B. Reliability of financial reporting
C. Corporate governance
D. Compliance monitoring

Answer: 


Q6. A weakness in AIS controls MOST directly affects:
A. Marketing decisions
B. Financial statement reliability
C. Employee morale
D. Customer satisfaction

Answer: 


C. General Controls vs Application Controls

Q7. Controls that relate to the overall IT environment are called:
A. Application controls
B. Preventive controls
C. General controls
D. Detective controls

Answer: 


Q8. Which of the following is a general control?
A. Input validation checks
B. User access security
C. Edit checks
D. Batch totals

Answer: 


Q9. Which of the following is an application control?
A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Program change control
C. Authorization of transactions
D. Logical access policy

Answer: 


Q10. Application controls primarily ensure:
A. IT infrastructure reliability
B. Accuracy, completeness, and validity of transactions
C. System availability only
D. Cybersecurity compliance

Answer: 


D. Input, Processing & Output Controls

Q11. Which control ensures only valid data is entered into the system?
A. Output control
B. Processing control
C. Input control
D. General control

Answer: 


Q12. Edit checks and reasonableness tests are examples of:
A. Output controls
B. Input controls
C. Processing controls
D. Monitoring controls

Answer: 


Q13. Run-to-run totals help ensure:
A. Authorized access
B. Processing accuracy and completeness
C. Proper segregation of duties
D. Data backup

Answer: 


Q14. Reviewing exception reports is primarily a:
A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Compensating control

Answer: 


E. Data Security & Access Controls

Q15. Restricting system access using passwords is a:
A. Detective control
B. Corrective control
C. Preventive control
D. Monitoring control

Answer: 


Q16. Which control BEST reduces the risk of unauthorized data modification?
A. Backup files
B. Logical access controls
C. Error reports
D. Reconciliations

Answer: 


Q17. Segregation of duties in AIS helps prevent:
A. System downtime
B. Fraud and errors
C. Data storage issues
D. Reporting delays

Answer: 


F. AIS Risks & Control Weaknesses

Q18. Lack of program change controls increases risk of:
A. Data input errors
B. Unauthorized system modifications
C. Poor audit opinions
D. Late reporting

Answer: 


Q19. Excessive reliance on automated controls without monitoring may lead to:
A. Stronger controls
B. Undetected system failures
C. Reduced risk
D. Better compliance

Answer: 


Q20. Which situation indicates a weakness in AIS internal control?
A. Regular backup and recovery testing
B. Shared user IDs
C. Access logs review
D. Segregation of duties

Answer: 


G. AIS & COSO Integration

Q21. AIS contributes MOST directly to which COSO component?
A. Control environment
B. Risk assessment
C. Information and communication
D. Monitoring

Answer: 


Q22. Automated controls mainly strengthen which COSO component?
A. Control activities
B. Control environment
C. Risk assessment
D. Governance

Answer: 


Q23. Inadequate AIS documentation primarily affects:
A. Control activities
B. Information and communication
C. Monitoring
D. Risk elimination

Answer: 


H. Scenario-Based / CMA-Tricky Questions

Q24. If AIS processes transactions accurately but allows unauthorized access, the weakness is in:
A. Application controls
B. General controls
C. Output controls
D. Processing controls

Answer: 


Q25. Management override of AIS controls MOST directly threatens:
A. Operational efficiency
B. Reliability of financial reporting
C. System availability
D. Data storage

Answer: 


Q26. A strong AIS with weak governance is MOST exposed to:
A. Data redundancy
B. Fraud risk
C. Processing delays
D. System cost overrun

Answer: 


I. Final Integrated Questions

Q27. An effective AIS internal control system provides:
A. Absolute assurance
B. Reasonable assurance
C. Guaranteed fraud prevention
D. Zero system risk

Answer: 


Q28. Which control ensures completeness of batch processing?
A. Passwords
B. Batch totals
C. Firewalls
D. Backup files

Answer: 


Q29. Internal audit’s role in AIS controls is to:
A. Operate the system
B. Evaluate system controls
C. Design transactions
D. Approve user access

Answer: 


Q30. The PRIMARY goal of AIS controls is to:
A. Reduce IT costs
B. Ensure reliable financial information
C. Increase automation
D. Support external audit only

Answer: 


CMA Exam Quick Recall

  • AIS + Internal Control = Reliable, timely, accurate data
  • General controls → Overall IT environment
  • Application controls → Transaction accuracy & completeness
  • Control gives reasonable assurance, not guarantee.
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