Wednesday, June 24, 2026

Why students struggle with CASEBASED QUESTION ⁉️ Discussion with suggestions/Prof Mahaley, Gmsisuccess

 

Why students struggle with CASEBASED QUESTION ⁉️ Discussion with suggestions/Prof Mahaley, Gmsisuccess

Why students show excellent performance in MCQ question mocktest,but lack of confidence & score less marks in casebased questions like topics subtopic From US CMA Part 1 like variance analysis performance measurement allocation of overheads cashflow statement budgetory control etc


Critical Analysis:

Students often excel at MCQs because those test recognition and isolated facts, but they underperform and feel insecure on case-based questions (CBQs) because CBQs require integrated application, interpretation of exhibits, structured problem-solving, and clear written/calculation answers under time pressure. This gap is primarily a skill-transfer and exam‑strategy issue, not always a knowledge gap 


Why this happens (critical analysis)

- Different cognitive demand: MCQs mainly test recall, pattern recognition, and narrow calculations; CBQs test analysis, synthesis, and judgement across multiple topic areas (variance analysis, overhead allocation, budgets, cash flows). Students trained for MCQs can recognise cues but struggle to *apply* concepts to novel facts  

- Fragmented study habits: Many candidates learn topics in isolation (e.g., variance formulas, overhead allocation methods) and practise single-step problems; CBQs require chaining those steps (interpret variance reason → trace to cost-driver → recommend corrective action), which students haven’t practiced enough  

- Weak exam‑reading and exhibit skills: Case questions present exhibits and require extracting salient numbers and assumptions quickly; weaker students either miss relevant info or over‑use irrelevant data, causing errors or lower confidence   

- Calculation + narrative integration: CBQs mix calculations (e.g., flexible-budget variances, cash‑flow adjustments) with explanation and recommendation; many students can compute but cannot succinctly explain drivers or managerial implications, which reduces scores and confidence .  

- Time management and format unfamiliarity: MCQ practice often uses many small, timed questions; CBQs are longer and require planning (outline → compute → explain). Lack of simulated CBQ practice creates time pressure and anxiety on exam day 

- Over-reliance on templates or rote steps: Some students memorize solution templates that fail when a case twists facts (e.g., mixed cost behaviour, nonstandard overhead pools), so they freeze when faced with variant detail 

- Assessment weighting misperception: Historically MCQs carried large weight (75%) and essays/CBQs smaller; this makes some learners underinvest in case practice believing MCQs are “enough,” which backfires when CBQs require passing performance to earn full marks or in newer CBQ formats that are integral 


Targeted suggestions to fix it (practical, exam-focused)

1. Train with integrated case practice (daily/weekly).  

   - Replace a portion of MCQ time with CBQ practice: 2 full CBQs/week rising to timed mocks. Use cases that combine variance analysis, overhead allocation, budgeting, and cash flows 

2. Use a structured solve template for each CBQ type.  

   - Example template: 1) Read overview (30–60s); 2) Identify objectives & required outputs (30s); 3) Scan exhibits to list relevant figures; 4) Outline steps (computations, tables, explanations); 5) Compute; 6) Answer succinctly (result + 1-line implication + 1 action). Practise until step 2–4 become automatic .  

3. Practice exhibit reading and data triage.  

   - Do timed drills where you extract only figures needed for a specific calculation (e.g., flexible‑budget variances, cash collections schedule) to speed information retrieval .  

4. Bridge calculation → interpretation.  

   - For every variance or allocation calculation, force a two-line commentary: (a) what the number means (favourable/unfavourable and why), (b) managerial implication or corrective action. Habitually writing this builds explanation skills required in CBQs 

5. Build adaptable technical blocks (not rote templates).  

   - Learn core patterns: flexible vs. static budgets; normal vs. standard costing variances; plantwide vs. departmental vs. activity‑based overhead allocation; direct vs. indirect cash-flow adjustments. For each, have 3 alternate fact patterns practised so you can adapt when case facts change 

6. Simulate exam conditions and feedback loops.  

   - Take full timed mocks with MCQ + CBQ sections; review mistakes in a log, categorize (calculation, interpretation, data‑reading, time). Focus subsequent practice on top two error categories. Use graders or peers to get feedback on clarity of explanations 

7. Improve time and anxiety management.  

   - Use short warm-up CBQs pre-study to build confidence. On exam day, allocate time blocks per sub‑question and stick to the solve template; leave small buffer for review  

8. Learn presentation brevity — write crisp answers.  

   - CBQs reward clarity. Practice writing 1–2 sentence conclusions and 1–2 bullet corrective actions; use tables for numeric summaries to save words and examiner time 

9. Use case-study groups and peer teaching.  

   - Explain your case answers to peers; teaching forces you to structure logic and exposes gaps—especially useful for corporate governance and performance-measurement recommendations  

10. Focused topic drills with integrated scenarios.  

    - For variance analysis: do drills that start with a flexible-budget then trace variances through price/efficiency, then link to operational drivers. For overhead allocation: practice reallocating overhead under different bases and show P&L impact. For cashflow: forecast-to-actual drills and explanation of timing differences 


Short study-plan example (4-week cycle)

- Week 1: 3 CBQ exposures (untimed) focusing on reading and outlining; daily 30 MCQs.  

- Week 2: 3 timed CBQs (90–120 mins) with post-review and error log; daily 30 MCQs.  

- Week 3: Mixed full mock (MCQ + 2 CBQs) under exam timing; targeted drills for top 2 error types.  

- Week 4: Final timed mocks, practice crisp write-ups, peer reviews and mental rehearsal.


One illustration (how to answer a variance CBQ sub-question)

- Compute: Flexible-budget sales variance = (Actual units × Standard price) − (Budgeted units × Standard price).  

- Interpret: Result is X unfavourable, mainly due to lower volume and higher material price.  

- Action: Investigate supplier pricing and production bottlenecks; consider renegotiation or substitute inputs. Practise writing that in one short paragraph after the calculation 


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Tuesday, June 23, 2026

100 US GAAP MCQs for *CMA Part 1: Financial Accounting* new syllabus, with Answers


100 US GAAP MCQs for *CMA Part 1: Financial Accounting* new syllabusGrouped by topic. Exam style + 1-line why for each.

 

*Note:* CMA Part 1 uses US GAAP for F/S reporting Qs, but main focus = managerial accounting. Still, these concepts show up in Section C “Financial Statement Analysis” + ethics/corporate finance.

 

*Batch 1: Concepts, Conventions, Principles, Stakeholders 1-15*

 

*Q1.* Which principle requires expenses matched with revenues of same period? 

A. Revenue recognition  B. Matching  C. Conservatism  D. Consistency 

*Ans: B* | Matching principle = US GAAP core.

 

*Q2.* “Record asset at historical cost, not market value” is which convention? 

A. Conservatism  B. Materiality  C. Historical cost  D. Going concern 

*Ans: C* | Cost principle under GAAP.

 

*Q3.* Assumption that business will continue indefinitely is? 

A. Entity  B. Periodicity  C. Going concern  D. Monetary unit 

*Ans: C* | Going concern basis.

 

*Q4.* Stakeholder with primary interest in dividends + share price? 

A. Creditor  B. Employee  C. Shareholder  D. Govt 

*Ans: C* | Shareholder = residual claim.

 

*Q5.* Bank lending money is concerned mainly with? 

A. Profitability  B. Liquidity + solvency  C. Growth  D. Market share 

*Ans: B* | Creditor interest = repayment ability.

 

*Q6.* Conflict of interest for manager: 

A. Maximize shareholder wealth by legal means 

B. Approve project giving personal bonus but negative NPV for company 

C. Follow GAAP 

D. Reduce cost 

*Ans: B* | Personal gain vs company goal = agency problem.

 

*Q7.* Goal congruence means: 

A. All depts have same budget 

B. Individual goals align with org goals 

C. CEO decides all goals 

D. No conflict ever 

*Ans: B* | Key CMA concept.

 

*Q8.* Conservatism convention: 

A. Overstate assets, understate liabilities 

B. Anticipate losses, not gains 

C. Record all gains immediately 

D. Ignore uncertainty 

*Ans: B* | “Anticipate no profit, provide for all losses”.

 

*Q9.* Materiality depends on: 

A. Size only  B. Nature + size + context 

C. Auditor’s opinion only  D. Tax law 

*Ans: B* | GAAP: item material if it affects decision.

 

*Q10.* Consistency principle violated if: 

A. Company uses FIFO both years 

B. Company switches FIFO to LIFO without disclosure 

C. Company depreciates SLM both years 

D. Company follows GAAP 

*Ans: B* | Consistency = same method period to period.

 

*Q11.* Entity concept means: 

A. Owner + business finances mixed 

B. Business separate from owner 

C. Only corporation is entity 

D. No relevance 

*Ans: B* | Separate legal entity.

 

*Q12.* Primary users of general purpose financial statements per FASB? 

A. Mgmt only  B. Investors + creditors 

C. Govt only  D. Employees only 

*Ans: B* | FASB CF: primary users.

 

*Q13.* Dual aspect concept means: 

A. 2 accountants check each entry 

B. Every transaction has debit + credit 

C. 2 financial statements 

D. 2 methods for depreciation 

*Ans: B* | Debit = Credit.

 

*Q14.* Realization principle for revenue: 

A. Cash received  B. Earned + realizable 

C. Order received  D. Budget made 

*Ans: B* | GAAP revenue recognition 5-step.

 

*Q15.* Which is NOT qualitative characteristic of useful info? 

A. Relevance  B. Reliability  C. Comparability  D. Conservatism 

*Ans: D* | Conservatism = convention, not QC per FASB CF.

 

*Batch 2: Depreciation, Impairment 16-30*

 

*Q16.* Machine cost $100k, salvage $10k, life 9 yrs. SLM annual dep? 

A. $10k  B. $11,111  C. $9,000  D. $12,000 

*Ans: A* | ($100k-$10k)/9 = $10k.

 

*Q17.* Under SLM, dep expense each year is: 

A. Increasing  B. Decreasing  C. Constant  D. Zero 

*Ans: C* | Straight line = constant.

 

*Q18.* Asset carrying value $80k, fair value $60k, undiscounted CF $70k. Impairment loss? 

A. $0  B. $10k  C. $20k  D. $80k 

*Ans: A* | US GAAP 2-step: If undisc CF $70k > CV $80k? No, $70k < $80k → test fails. Loss = CV - FV = $80k-$60k = $20k. Wait: 2-step: Step1: CV vs undisc CF. $80k > $70k → impaired. Step2: Loss = CV - FV = $20k. 

*Ans: C. $20k*

 

*Q19.* Impairment loss under GAAP recognized in: 

A. OCI  B. P&L  C. Equity  D. Not recognized 

*Ans: B* | Expense in income statement.

 

*Q20.* After impairment, new dep base = ? 

A. Old cost  B. New carrying value / remaining life 

C. Fair value  D. Original cost 

*Ans: B* | Dep on revised book value.

 

*Q21.* Units-of-production dep depends on: 

A. Time  B. Output/units produced 

C. SLM rate  D. Market value 

*Ans: B* | Activity-based.

 

*Q22.* Dep is process of: 

A. Valuation  B. Allocation of cost 

C. Cash outflow  D. Funding replacement 

*Ans: B* | Cost allocation, not valuation.

 

*Q23.* Land is not depreciated because: 

A. No cost  B. Indefinite useful life 

C. GAAP prohibits  D. Tax rule 

*Ans: B* | Land life indefinite.

 

*Q24.* If salvage value increases, SLM dep: 

A. Increases  B. Decreases  C. No change  D. Becomes zero 

*Ans: B* | Dep = (Cost - Salvage)/Life.

 

*Q25.* Impairment test under GAAP done when: 

A. Every year  B. Triggering event/indicator exists 

C. Only at sale  D. Never 

*Ans: B* | When events suggest CV not recoverable.

 

*Q26.* Gain on sale of PPE recorded if: 

A. Proceeds > CV  B. Proceeds < CV 

C. Always  D. Never 

*Ans: A* | Proceeds - CV = gain.

 

*Q27.* Accumulated depreciation is: 

A. Asset  B. Liability  C. Contra-asset 

D. Equity 

*Ans: C* | Reduces gross PPE.

 

*Q28.* Change in dep method is: 

A. Error  B. Change in estimate – prospective 

C. Change in policy – retrospective 

D. Fraud 

*Ans: B* | Estimate change = prospective GAAP.

 

*Q29.* Capital expenditure increases: 

A. Expense  B. Asset value 

C. Liability  D. Revenue 

*Ans: B* | Adds to asset.

 

*Q30.* Revenue expenditure is: 

A. Capitalized  B. Expensed in period 

C. Added to asset  D. Deferred 

*Ans: B* | Repairs, maintenance.

 

*Batch 3: Inventory FIFO LIFO 31-45*

 

*Q31.* During inflation, FIFO vs LIFO: COGS? 

A. FIFO > LIFO  B. FIFO < LIFO 

C. Same  D. Can’t say 

*Ans: B* | FIFO uses old cheap cost → lower COGS.

 

*Q32.* During inflation, ending inventory value highest under? 

A. FIFO  B. LIFO  C. Weighted avg  D. Same 

*Ans: A* | FIFO ending inv = latest higher cost.

 

*Q33.* US GAAP allows which inventory method? 

A. FIFO  B. LIFO  C. Both FIFO + LIFO  D. Only weighted avg 

*Ans: C* | GAAP allows FIFO, LIFO, avg. IFRS bans LIFO.

 

*Q34.* LIFO liquidation occurs when: 

A. Inventory units increase  B. Inventory units decrease below base 

C. Price increases  D. Price decreases 

*Ans: B* | Old layer liquidated, boosts profit.

 

*Q35.* LCM rule under GAAP: inventory valued at? 

A. Cost  B. Market  C. Lower of cost or net realizable value 

D. Higher of cost or market 

*Ans: C* | Conservatism.

 

*Q36.* Purchase 100@10, 100@12, sold 120. FIFO COGS? 

A. $1,240  B. $1,200  C. $1,320  D. $1,100 

*Ans: A* | 100×10 + 20×12 = $1,240.

 

*Q37.* Same data, LIFO COGS? 

A. $1,240  B. $1,200  C. $1,320  D. $1,100 

*Ans: C* | 100×12 + 20×10 = $1,320.

 

*Q38.* During deflation, FIFO profit vs LIFO? 

A. FIFO profit < LIFO 

B. FIFO profit > LIFO 

C. Same 

D. Zero 

*Ans: B* | FIFO COGS higher, profit lower? Wait deflation: old cost high. FIFO uses high old cost → higher COGS → lower profit. LIFO uses new low cost → lower COGS → higher profit. 

*Ans: A. FIFO profit < LIFO*

 

*Q39.* Inventory shrinkage recorded as: 

A. Increase asset  B. Expense loss 

C. Liability  D. Revenue 

*Ans: B* | Debit COGS/loss.

 

*Q40.* Periodic vs perpetual: diff in timing of? 

A. Purchase entry  B. COGS recognition 

C. Sales entry  D. Cash entry 

*Ans: B* | COGS updated continuously in perpetual.

 

*Q41.* Weighted avg cost per unit = ? 

A. Total cost / total units 

B. Latest cost 

C. Oldest cost 

D. Market price 

*Ans: A* | Avg method.

 

*Q42.* LIFO conformity rule requires: 

A. Use LIFO for tax if used for financial 

B. Use FIFO for tax 

C. No rule 

D. Use avg for tax 

*Ans: A* | If LIFO for financial, must use for tax.

 

*Q43.* Inventory turnover = ? 

A. COGS / Avg inventory 

B. Sales / Inventory 

C. Profit / Inventory 

D. Assets / Inventory 

*Ans: A* | Efficiency ratio.

 

*Q44.* Net realizable value = ? 

A. Selling price 

B. Selling price - completion + disposal cost 

C. Cost 

D. Market price 

*Ans: B* | NRV for LCM.

 

*Q45.* Write-down of inventory under GAAP: 

A. Reversed if value recovers 

B. Not reversed 

C. Added to asset 

D. Goes to equity 

*Ans: B* | GAAP prohibits reversal of inventory write-down.

 

*Batch 4: Receivables, Allowance, Cash Flow 46-60*

 

*Q46.* Allowance for doubtful accounts is: 

A. Asset  B. Contra-asset 

C. Liability  D. Expense 

*Ans: B* | Reduces AR.

 

*Q47.* Bad debt expense under allowance method recorded when? 

A. Customer defaults 

B. At time of sale, based on estimate 

C. Cash received 

D. Year end only 

*Ans: B* | Matching principle.

 

*Q48.* Write-off of AR: Debit? 

A. Bad debt expense 

B. Allowance for doubtful accounts 

C. Cash 

D. Sales 

*Ans: B* | Write-off uses allowance, not expense again.

 

*Q49.* Recovery of written-off AR: Credit? 

A. Cash  B. Allowance  C. Bad debt expense  D. Sales 

*Ans: B* | Reinstate AR + allowance first.

 

*Q50.* Age-wise analysis used for: 

A. Dep method 

B. Estimating allowance for doubtful accounts 

C. Inventory valuation 

D. Tax 

*Ans: B* | Aging schedule → % uncollectible.

 

*Q51.* CFO under indirect method starts with: 

A. Cash  B. Net income 

C. Sales  D. Assets 

*Ans: B* | Indirect method starts NI.

 

*Q52.* Increase in AR during year: 

A. Added to NI for CFO  B. Deducted from NI 

C. No effect  D. Added to CFI 

*Ans: B* | Cash not collected yet.

 

*Q53.* Depreciation expense in CFO: 

A. Deducted  B. Added back to NI 

C. Ignored  D. Part of CFI 

*Ans: B* | Non-cash expense.

 

*Q54.* Purchase of equipment is: 

A. CFO  B. CFI  C. CFF  D. Not CF 

*Ans: B* | Capital expenditure = investing.

 

*Q55.* Issue of bonds is: 

A. CFO  B. CFI  C. CFF  D. Not CF 

*Ans: C* | Financing activity.

 

*Q56.* Loss on sale of asset in CFO: 

A. Deducted  B. Added back to NI 

C. Ignored  D. Part of CFI 

*Ans: B* | Non-cash loss.

 

*Q57.* Cash basis vs accrual: accrual records? 

A. Only cash  B. Revenue when earned, expense when incurred 

C. Only expenses  D. Only revenue 

*Ans: B* | Accrual basis.

 

*Q58.* Prepaid insurance $12k for 1 yr, 3 months passed. Expense? 

A. $12k  B. $3k  C. $9k  D. $0 

*Ans: B* | $12k×3/12 = $3k.

 

*Q59.* Unearned revenue is: 

A. Asset  B. Liability  C. Equity  D. Revenue 

*Ans: B* | Obligation to deliver service.

 

*Q60.* Accrued expense means: 

A. Paid in advance 

B. Incurred but not yet paid 

C. Paid and incurred 

D. Not incurred 

*Ans: B* | Wages payable, etc.

 

*Batch 5: Tax, Deferred Tax, Capital Theories 61-80*

 

*Q61.* Current tax expense based on: 

A. Accounting profit  B. Taxable profit 

C. Revenue  D. Cash profit 

*Ans: B* | Tax law profit.

 

*Q62.* Deferred tax arises due to: 

A. Permanent difference 

B. Temporary difference 

C. Both 

D. Neither 

*Ans: B* | Timing diff reverses.

 

*Q63.* Permanent difference example: 

A. Depreciation diff 

B. Fine/penalty not deductible 

C. Warranty provision 

D. Unearned revenue 

*Ans: B* | Fine never deductible.

 

*Q64.* Temp difference: tax dep > book dep creates? 

A. Deferred tax asset 

B. Deferred tax liability 

C. Current tax asset 

D. No effect 

*Ans: B* | Pay less tax now, more later.

 

*Q65.* DTL shown in: 

A. Asset side  B. Liability side 

C. Equity  D. Not shown 

*Ans: B* | Deferred tax liability.

 

*Q66.* Prior period excess tax provision $5k rectified. Entry? 

A. Dr Tax exp Cr Cash 

B. Dr Tax payable Cr Retained earnings 

C. Dr Retained earnings Cr Tax payable 

D. Dr Cash Cr Revenue 

*Ans: B* | Prior period adjustment to opening RE.

 

*Q67.* Capital maintenance: proprietary theory views equity as? 

A. Residual interest of owner 

B. Creditor claim 

C. Govt claim 

D. Employee claim 

*Ans: A* | Equity = assets - liabilities.

 

*Q68.* Entity theory treats business as separate from? 

A. Creditors  B. Owner 

C. Employees  D. Govt 

*Ans: B* | Entity separate from owner.

 

*Q69.* Residual theory: income belongs to? 

A. Creditors  B. Govt 

C. Residual claimant = common shareholders 

D. Employees 

*Ans: C* | After all claims paid.

 

*Q70.* Financial capital maintenance means? 

A. Physical capacity maintained 

B. Money amount of equity maintained 

C. Asset value maintained 

D. No depreciation 

*Ans: B* | Money measure of capital.

 

*Q71.* Physical capital maintenance means? 

A. Money capital maintained 

B. Operating capacity maintained 

C. Profit maintained 

D. Sales maintained 

*Ans: B* | Current cost accounting concept.

 

*Q72.* Deferred tax asset arises when: 

A. Taxable profit > accounting profit 

B. Taxable profit < accounting profit 

C. No difference 

D. Always 

*Ans: B* | Pay more tax now, less later.

 

*Q73.* Valuation allowance on DTA if: 

A. DTA will be realized 

B. “More likely than not” DTA not realized 

C. Always required 

D. Never required 

*Ans: B* | GAAP conservatism.

 

*Q74.* Timing difference = synonym for? 

A. Permanent difference 

B. Temporary difference 

C. Current tax 

D. Tax rate 

*Ans: B* | Reverses over time.

 

*Q75.* Tax rate change affects: 

A. Current tax only 

B. DTA/DTL balance 

C. Cash only 

D. No effect 

*Ans: B* | Remeasure DTA/DTL.

 

*Q76.* Risk contingency in accounting: 

A. Record liability if probable + estimable 

B. Always record 

C. Never record 

D. Disclose only if remote 

*Ans: A* | Contingency rules ASC 450.

 

*Q77.* Remote contingency: 

A. Accrue  B. Disclose  C. Ignore 

D. Record as asset 

*Ans: C* | No action.

 

*Q78.* Reasonably possible contingency: 

A. Accrue  B. Disclose in notes 

C. Ignore  D. Record as asset 

*Ans: B* | Disclosure only.

 

*Q79.* Gross profit = ? 

A. Sales - COGS 

B. Sales - all expenses 

C. Operating income 

D. Net income 

*Ans: A* | Before operating expenses.

 

*Q80.* Operating profit = ? 

A. Gross profit - operating expenses 

B. Sales - COGS 

C. Net income + tax 

D. EBITDA 

*Ans: A* | EBIT.

 

*Batch 6: Reporting, Ratios, Other 81-100*

 

*Q81.* Annual report includes: 

A. Only B/S 

B. B/S, IS, CF, Notes, MD&A 

C. Only IS 

D. Only auditor report 

*Ans: B* | Complete package.

 

*Q82.* MD&A section explains: 

A. Only numbers 

B. Mgmt view on results + future risks 

C. Auditor opinion 

D. Tax details 

*Ans: B* | Management Discussion & Analysis.

 

*Q83.* Notes to accounts provide: 

A. Summary only 

B. Detail + accounting policies 

C. Cash only 

D. Not required 

*Ans: B* | Required disclosures.

 

*Q84.* Auditor’s report gives: 

A. Mgmt opinion 

B. Independent opinion on F/S fairness 

C. Tax opinion 

D. Budget 

*Ans: B* | Unqualified/qualified/adverse.

 

*Q85.* Current ratio = ? 

A. Current assets / Current liabilities 

B. Quick assets / CL 

C. Cash / CL 

D. Total assets / TL 

*Ans: A* | Liquidity ratio.

 

*Q86.* Quick ratio excludes: 

A. Cash  B. Inventory 

C. AR  D. Marketable securities 

*Ans: B* | (Cash+MS+AR)/CL.

 

*Q87.* Debt-to-equity ratio measures: 

A. Profitability  B. Leverage/solvency 

C. Efficiency  D. Liquidity 

*Ans: B* | Capital structure.

 

*Q88.* ROE = ? 

A. NI / Sales  B. NI / Avg equity 

C. Sales / Assets  D. EBIT / Assets 

*Ans: B* | Return on equity.

 

*Q89.* ROA = ? 

A. NI / Avg assets 

B. Sales / Assets 

C. Gross profit / Assets 

D. EBIT / Equity 

*Ans: A* | Return on assets.

 

*Q90.* Days sales outstanding = ? 

A. 365 / AR turnover 

B. 365 / Inventory turnover 

C. AR / Sales 

D. Sales / AR 

*Ans: A* | Collection period.

 

*Q91.* Inventory days = ? 

A. 365 / Inventory turnover 

B. COGS / Inventory 

C. Sales / Inventory 

D. 365 / AR turnover 

*Ans: A* | Days inventory held.

 

*Q92.* Prior period error correction under GAAP: 

A. Current year income 

B. Restate prior year + adjust opening RE 

C. Ignore 

D. Add to expense 

*Ans: B* | Retrospective restatement.

 

*Q93.* Change in accounting principle under GAAP: 

A. Prospective  B. Retrospective with cumulative adjustment 

C. Ignore  D. Current year only 

*Ans: B* | Restate prior periods.

 

*Q94.* Segment reporting required when? 

A. Always  B. Public company with reportable segments 

C. Never  D. Only for tax 

*Ans: B* | ASC 280.

 

*Q95.* EPS = ? 

A. NI / Shares outstanding 

B. Sales / Shares 

C. Assets / Shares 

D. Debt / Shares 

*Ans: A* | Earnings per share.

 

*Q96.* Comprehensive income includes: 

A. NI only 

B. NI + OCI items 

C. Cash flow only 

D. Revenue only 

*Ans: B* | NI + unrealized gains/losses.

 

*Q97.* OCI example: 

A. Sales revenue 

B. Unrealized gain on AFS securities 

C. Wages expense 

D. Interest expense 

*Ans: B* | Bypass P&L.

 

*Q98.* Related party transaction must be: 

A. Ignored  B. Disclosed in notes 

C. Recorded at market always 

D. Not allowed 

*Ans: B* | Disclosure required.

 

*Q99.* Going concern uncertainty: auditor? 

A. Unqualified always 

B. Add emphasis paragraph if doubt 

C. Ignore 

D. Adverse opinion 

*Ans: B* | If substantial doubt.

 

*Q100.* Subsequent event after year-end but before issue date: 

A. Always adjust F/S 

B. Adjust if provides evidence of condition at B/S date 

C. Ignore always 

D. Add to next year 

*Ans: B* | Adjusting vs non-adjusting event.

 

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100 US GAAP MCQs for *CMA Part 1: Financial Accounting

100 US GAAP MCQs for *CMA Part 1: Financial Accounting



100 US GAAP MCQs for *CMA Part 1: Financial Accounting* new syllabus. Grouped by topic. Exam style + 1-line why for each. 


*Note:* CMA Part 1 uses US GAAP for F/S reporting Qs, but main focus = managerial accounting. Still, these concepts show up in Section C “Financial Statement Analysis” + ethics/corporate finance.


*Batch 1: Concepts, Conventions, Principles, Stakeholders 1-15*


*Q1.* Which principle requires expenses matched with revenues of same period?  

A. Revenue recognition  B. Matching  C. Conservatism  D. Consistency  

*Ans: 


*Q2.* “Record asset at historical cost, not market value” is which convention?  

A. Conservatism  B. Materiality  C. Historical cost  D. Going concern  

*Ans: 


*Q3.* Assumption that business will continue indefinitely is?  

A. Entity  B. Periodicity  C. Going concern  D. Monetary unit  

*Ans: 


*Q4.* Stakeholder with primary interest in dividends + share price?  

A. Creditor  B. Employee  C. Shareholder  D. Govt  

*Ans: 


*Q5.* Bank lending money is concerned mainly with?  

A. Profitability  B. Liquidity + solvency  C. Growth  D. Market share  

*Ans: 


*Q6.* Conflict of interest for manager:  

A. Maximize shareholder wealth by legal means  

B. Approve project giving personal bonus but negative NPV for company  

C. Follow GAAP  

D. Reduce cost  

*Ans:


*Q7.* Goal congruence means:  

A. All depts have same budget  

B. Individual goals align with org goals  

C. CEO decides all goals  

D. No conflict ever  

*Ans: 


*Q8.* Conservatism convention:  

A. Overstate assets, understate liabilities  

B. Anticipate losses, not gains  

C. Record all gains immediately  

D. Ignore uncertainty  

*Ans: 


*Q9.* Materiality depends on:  

A. Size only  B. Nature + size + context  

C. Auditor’s opinion only  D. Tax law  

*Ans: 


*Q10.* Consistency principle violated if:  

A. Company uses FIFO both years  

B. Company switches FIFO to LIFO without disclosure  

C. Company depreciates SLM both years  

D. Company follows GAAP  

*Ans: 


*Q11.* Entity concept means:  

A. Owner + business finances mixed  

B. Business separate from owner  

C. Only corporation is entity  

D. No relevance  

*Ans: 


*Q12.* Primary users of general purpose financial statements per FASB?  

A. Mgmt only  B. Investors + creditors  

C. Govt only  D. Employees only  

*Ans: 


*Q13.* Dual aspect concept means:  

A. 2 accountants check each entry  

B. Every transaction has debit + credit  

C. 2 financial statements  

D. 2 methods for depreciation  

*Ans:


*Q14.* Realization principle for revenue:  

A. Cash received  B. Earned + realizable  

C. Order received  D. Budget made  

*Ans: .


*Q15.* Which is NOT qualitative characteristic of useful info?  

A. Relevance  B. Reliability  C. Comparability  D. Conservatism  

*Ans: 


*Batch 2: Depreciation, Impairment 16-30*


*Q16.* Machine cost $100k, salvage $10k, life 9 yrs. SLM annual dep?  

A. $10k  B. $11,111  C. $9,000  D. $12,000  

*Ans: 


*Q17.* Under SLM, dep expense each year is:  

A. Increasing  B. Decreasing  C. Constant  D. Zero  

*Ans:


*Q18.* Asset carrying value $80k, fair value $60k, undiscounted CF $70k. Impairment loss?  

A. $0  B. $10k  C. $20k  D. $80k  

*Ans: 


*Q19.* Impairment loss under GAAP recognized in:  

A. OCI  B. P&L  C. Equity  D. Not recognized  

*Ans: 


*Q20.* After impairment, new dep base = ?  

A. Old cost  B. New carrying value / remaining life  

C. Fair value  D. Original cost  

*Ans:


*Q21.* Units-of-production dep depends on:  

A. Time  B. Output/units produced  

C. SLM rate  D. Market value  

*Ans:


*Q22.* Dep is process of:  

A. Valuation  B. Allocation of cost  

C. Cash outflow  D. Funding replacement  

*Ans: 


*Q23.* Land is not depreciated because:  

A. No cost  B. Indefinite useful life  

C. GAAP prohibits  D. Tax rule  

*Ans:


*Q24.* If salvage value increases, SLM dep:  

A. Increases  B. Decreases  C. No change  D. Becomes zero  

*Ans: 


*Q25.* Impairment test under GAAP done when:  

A. Every year  B. Triggering event/indicator exists  

C. Only at sale  D. Never  

*Ans: 


*Q26.* Gain on sale of PPE recorded if:  

A. Proceeds > CV  B. Proceeds < CV  

C. Always  D. Never  

*Ans: 


*Q27.* Accumulated depreciation is:  

A. Asset  B. Liability  C. Contra-asset  

D. Equity  

*Ans: 


*Q28.* Change in dep method is:  

A. Error  B. Change in estimate – prospective  

C. Change in policy – retrospective  

D. Fraud  

*Ans: 


*Q29.* Capital expenditure increases:  

A. Expense  B. Asset value  

C. Liability  D. Revenue  

*Ans: 


*Q30.* Revenue expenditure is:  

A. Capitalized  B. Expensed in period  

C. Added to asset  D. Deferred  

*Ans: 


*Batch 3: Inventory FIFO LIFO 31-45*


*Q31.* During inflation, FIFO vs LIFO: COGS?  

A. FIFO > LIFO  B. FIFO < LIFO  

C. Same  D. Can’t say  

*Ans:


*Q32.* During inflation, ending inventory value highest under?  

A. FIFO  B. LIFO  C. Weighted avg  D. Same  

*Ans: 


*Q33.* US GAAP allows which inventory method?  

A. FIFO  B. LIFO  C. Both FIFO + LIFO  D. Only weighted avg  

*Ans: 


*Q34.* LIFO liquidation occurs when:  

A. Inventory units increase  B. Inventory units decrease below base  

C. Price increases  D. Price decreases  

*Ans: .


*Q35.* LCM rule under GAAP: inventory valued at?  

A. Cost  B. Market  C. Lower of cost or net realizable value  

D. Higher of cost or market  

*Ans: 


*Q36.* Purchase 100@10, 100@12, sold 120. FIFO COGS?  

A. $1,240  B. $1,200  C. $1,320  D. $1,100  

*Ans: 


*Q37.* Same data, LIFO COGS?  

A. $1,240  B. $1,200  C. $1,320  D. $1,100  

*Ans: 


*Q38.* During deflation, FIFO profit vs LIFO?  

A. FIFO profit < LIFO  

B. FIFO profit > LIFO  

C. Same  

D. Zero  

*Ans: 

*Ans: 


*Q39.* Inventory shrinkage recorded as:  

A. Increase asset  B. Expense loss  

C. Liability  D. Revenue  

*Ans: 


*Q40.* Periodic vs perpetual: diff in timing of?  

A. Purchase entry  B. COGS recognition  

C. Sales entry  D. Cash


*Q41.* Weighted avg cost per unit = ?  

A. Total cost / total units  

B. Latest cost  

C. Oldest cost  

D. Market price  

*Ans: 


*Q42.* LIFO conformity rule requires:  

A. Use LIFO for tax if used for financial  

B. Use FIFO for tax  

C. No rule  

D. Use avg for tax  

*Ans: 


*Q43.* Inventory turnover = ?  

A. COGS / Avg inventory  

B. Sales / Inventory  

C. Profit / Inventory  

D. Assets / Inventory  

*Ans: 


*Q44.* Net realizable value = ?  

A. Selling price  

B. Selling price - completion + disposal cost  

C. Cost  

D. Market price  

Ans 


*Q45.* Write-down of inventory under GAAP:  

A. Reversed if value recovers  

B. Not reversed  

C. Added to asset  

D. Goes to equity  

*Ans: 


*Batch 4: Receivables, Allowance, Cash Flow 46-60*


*Q46.* Allowance for doubtful accounts is:  

A. Asset  B. Contra-asset  

C. Liability  D. Expense  

*Ans: 


*Q47.* Bad debt expense under allowance method recorded when?  

A. Customer defaults  

B. At time of sale, based on estimate  

C. Cash received  

D. Year end only  

*Ans: 


*Q48.* Write-off of AR: Debit?  

A. Bad debt expense  

B. Allowance for doubtful accounts  

C. Cash  

D. Sales  

*Ans

*Q49.* Recovery of written-off AR: Credit?  

A. Cash  B. Allowance  C. Bad debt expense  D. Sales  

*Ans: 


*Q50.* Age-wise analysis used for:  

A. Dep method  

B. Estimating allowance for doubtful accounts  

C. Inventory valuation  

D. Tax  

*Ans:.


*Q51.* CFO under indirect method starts with:  

A. Cash  B. Net income  

C. Sales  D. Assets  

*Ans: 


*Q52.* Increase in AR during year:  

A. Added to NI for CFO  B. Deducted from NI  

C. No effect  D. Added to CFI  

*Ans 


*Q53.* Depreciation expense in CFO:  

A. Deducted  B. Added back to NI  

C. Ignored  D. Part of CFI  

*Ans: 


*Q54.* Purchase of equipment is:  

A. CFO  B. CFI  C. CFF  D. Not CF  

*Ans: 


*Q55.* Issue of bonds is:  

A. CFO  B. CFI  C. CFF  D. Not CF  

*Ans: 


*Q56.* Loss on sale of asset in CFO:  

A. Deducted  B. Added back to NI  

C. Ignored  D. Part of CFI  

*Ans: 


*Q57.* Cash basis vs accrual: accrual records?  

A. Only cash  B. Revenue when earned, expense when incurred  

C. Only expenses  D. Only revenue  

*Ans: 


*Q58.* Prepaid insurance $12k for 1 yr, 3 months passed. Expense?  

A. $12k  B. $3k  C. $9k  D. $0  

*Ans: 


*Q59.* Unearned revenue is:  

A. Asset  B. Liability  C. Equity  D. Revenue  

*Ans: 


*Q60.* Accrued expense means:  

A. Paid in advance  

B. Incurred but not yet paid  

C. Paid and incurred  

D. Not incurred  

*Ans:


*Batch 5: Tax, Deferred Tax, Capital Theories 61-80*


*Q61.* Current tax expense based on:  

A. Accounting profit  B. Taxable profit  

C. Revenue  D. Cash profit  

*Ans:


*Q62.* Deferred tax arises due to:  

A. Permanent difference  

B. Temporary difference  

C. Both  

D. Neither  

*Ans: 


*Q63.* Permanent difference example:  

A. Depreciation diff  

B. Fine/penalty not deductible  

C. Warranty provision  

D. Unearned revenue  

*Ans


*Q64.* Temp difference: tax dep > book dep creates?  

A. Deferred tax asset  

B. Deferred tax liability  

C. Current tax asset  

D. No effect  

*Ans: 


*Q65.* DTL shown in:  

A. Asset side  B. Liability side  

C. Equity  D. Not shown  

*Ans: 


*Q66.* Prior period excess tax provision $5k rectified. Entry?  

A. Dr Tax exp Cr Cash  

B. Dr Tax payable Cr Retained earnings  

C. Dr Retained earnings Cr Tax payable  

D. Dr Cash Cr Revenue  

*Ans


*Q67.* Capital maintenance: proprietary theory views equity as?  

A. Residual interest of owner  

B. Creditor claim  

C. Govt claim  

D. Employee claim  

*Ans: 


*Q68.* Entity theory treats business as separate from?  

A. Creditors  B. Owner  

C. Employees  D. Govt  

*Ans: 


*Q69.* Residual theory: income belongs to?  

A. Creditors  B. Govt  

C. Residual claimant = common shareholders  

D. Employees  

*Ans: 


*Q70.* Financial capital maintenance means?  

A. Physical capacity maintained  

B. Money amount of equity maintained  

C. Asset value maintained  

D. No depreciation  

*Ans: 


*Q71.* Physical capital maintenance means?  

A. Money capital maintained  

B. Operating capacity maintained  

C. Profit maintained  

D. Sales maintained  

*Ans:


*Q72.* Deferred tax asset arises when:  

A. Taxable profit > accounting profit  

B. Taxable profit < accounting profit  

C. No difference  

D. Always  

*Ans:


*Q73.* Valuation allowance on DTA if:  

A. DTA will be realized  

B. “More likely than not” DTA not realized  

C. Always required  

D. Never required  

*Ans: 


*Q74.* Timing difference = synonym for?  

A. Permanent difference  

B. Temporary difference  

C. Current tax  

D. Tax rate  

*Ans: 


*Q75.* Tax rate change affects:  

A. Current tax only  

B. DTA/DTL balance  

C. Cash only  

D. No effect  

*Ans: 


*Q76.* Risk contingency in accounting:  

A. Record liability if probable + estimable  

B. Always record  

C. Never record  

D. Disclose only if remote  

*Ans


*Q77.* Remote contingency:  

A. Accrue  B. Disclose  C. Ignore  

D. Record as asset  

*Ans: 


*Q78.* Reasonably possible contingency:  

A. Accrue  B. Disclose in notes  

C. Ignore  D. Record as asset  

*Ans: 


*Q79.* Gross profit = ?  

A. Sales - COGS  

B. Sales - all expenses  

C. Operating income  

D. Net income  

*Ans: 


*Q80.* Operating profit = ?  

A. Gross profit - operating expenses  

B. Sales - COGS  

C. Net income + tax  

D. EBITDA  

*Ans: 


*Batch 6: Reporting, Ratios, Other 81-100*


*Q81.* Annual report includes:  

A. Only B/S  

B. B/S, IS, CF, Notes, MD&A  

C. Only IS  

D. Only auditor report  

*Ans: 


*Q82.* MD&A section explains:  

A. Only numbers  

B. Mgmt view on results + future risks  

C. Auditor opinion  

D. Tax details  

*Ans: 


*Q83.* Notes to accounts provide:  

A. Summary only  

B. Detail + accounting policies  

C. Cash only  

D. Not required  

*Ans: 


*Q84.* Auditor’s report gives:  

A. Mgmt opinion  

B. Independent opinion on F/S fairness  

C. Tax opinion  

D. Budget  

*Ans: 


*Q85.* Current ratio = ?  

A. Current assets / Current liabilities  

B. Quick assets / CL  

C. Cash / CL  

D. Total assets / TL  

*Ans: 


*Q86.* Quick ratio excludes:  

A. Cash  B. Inventory  

C. AR  D. Marketable securities  

*Ans: 


*Q87.* Debt-to-equity ratio measures:  

A. Profitability  B. Leverage/solvency  

C. Efficiency  D. Liquidity  

*Ans: 


*Q88.* ROE = ?  

A. NI / Sales  B. NI / Avg equity  

C. Sales / Assets  D. EBIT / Assets  

*Ans:


*Q89.* ROA = ?  

A. NI / Avg assets  

B. Sales / Assets  

C. Gross profit / Assets  

D. EBIT / Equity  

*Ans: 


*Q90.* Days sales outstanding = ?  

A. 365 / AR turnover  

B. 365 / Inventory turnover  

C. AR / Sales  

D. Sales / AR  

*Ans: 


*Q91.* Inventory days = ?  

A. 365 / Inventory turnover  

B. COGS / Inventory  

C. Sales / Inventory  

D. 365 / AR turnover  

*Ans: 


*Q92.* Prior period error correction under GAAP:  

A. Current year income  

B. Restate prior year + adjust opening RE  

C. Ignore  

D. Add to expense  

*Ans: 


*Q93.* Change in accounting principle under GAAP:  

A. Prospective  B. Retrospective with cumulative adjustment  

C. Ignore  D. Current year only  

*Ans: 


*Q94.* Segment reporting required when?  

A. Always  B. Public company with reportable segments  

C. Never  D. Only for tax  

*Ans: 


*Q95.* EPS = ?  

A. NI / Shares outstanding  

B. Sales / Shares  

C. Assets / Shares  

D. Debt / Shares  

*Ans: 


*Q96.* Comprehensive income includes:  

A. NI only  

B. NI + OCI items  

C. Cash flow only  

D. Revenue only  

*Ans:


*Q97.* OCI example:  

A. Sales revenue  

B. Unrealized gain on AFS securities  

C. Wages expense  

D. Interest expense  

Ans 


*Q98.* Related party transaction must be:  

A. Ignored  B. Disclosed in notes  

C. Recorded at market always  

D. Not allowed  

*Ans: 


*Q99.* Going concern uncertainty: auditor?  

A. Unqualified always  

B. Add emphasis paragraph if doubt  

C. Ignore  

D. Adverse opinion  

*Ans:


*Q100.* Subsequent event after year-end but before issue date:  

A. Always adjust F/S  

B. Adjust if provides evidence of condition at B/S date  

C. Ignore always  

D. Add to next year  

*Ans: 


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