Tuesday, September 22, 2026

US CMA PART 1 100 MCQs —Time allowed:max 120 minutes, Difficult level: moderate, submit your answers today before 8pm.All questions are examinable,so attempting mocktest sure helps you to boost confidence & exam compatability.

 


US CMA PART 1

100 MCQs —Time allowed:max 120 minutes, Difficult level: moderate, submit your answers today before 8pm.All questions are examinable,so attempting mocktest sure helps you to boost confidence & exam compatability.

I'm confident that Google, chatgpt will not help during main exam

SECTION A — COST TERMINOLOGY & CLASSIFICATION

Q1–Q20

Q1. Prime costs consist of:

A) Manufacturing overhead + direct labor
B) Direct materials + direct labor
C) Direct materials + manufacturing overhead
D) All manufacturing costs

Answer:


Q2. Conversion costs consist of:

A) Direct labor + manufacturing overhead
B) Direct materials + direct labor
C) Direct materials + manufacturing overhead
D) All period costs

Answer:


Q3. True or False: Period costs are inventoriable costs.

A) True
B) False

Answer:


Q4. Which of the following is a non-production overhead?

A) Factory supervisor salary
B) Indirect materials
C) Sales commission
D) Factory rent

Answer:


Q5. Fill in the blank:

The resource sacrificed or cost incurred to achieve an objective is called a ______.

A) Cost
B) Profit
C) Revenue
D) Margin

Answer: 


Q6. Which cost remains constant in total within the relevant range?

A) Mixed cost
B) Prime cost
C) Variable cost
D) Fixed cost

Answer: 


Q7. True or False:

Unit fixed cost decreases as production volume increases within the relevant range.

A) False
B) True

Answer: 


Q8. An imputed cost:

A) Is always a sunk cost
B) Is recorded as a cash payment
C) Does not entail a current dollar outlay but may be relevant to a decision
D) Must be recorded in the accounting records

Answer:


Q9. Opportunity cost is:

A) A past cost that cannot be recovered
B) A cost that varies with production
C) An out-of-pocket cost
D) The contribution to income lost by not using a resource in its best alternative use

Answer:


Q10. Odd Man Out: Which cost is NOT a product cost?

A) Direct labor
B) Manufacturing overhead
C) Advertising expense
D) Direct materials

Answer:


Q11. Sunk costs are:

A) Costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered
B) Opportunity costs
C) Future costs that differ among alternatives
D) Variable costs

Answer:


Q12. The relevant range is:

A) The range in which variable costs become fixed
B) The range of profitability
C) The range of activity within which cost behavior assumptions remain valid
D) The range in which total fixed costs change continuously

Answer:


Q13. A step cost is:

A) A purely variable cost
B) A sunk cost
C) An opportunity cost
D) A cost that remains fixed over a range of activity and then increases to a higher level

Answer:


Q14. Match the cost type with its behavior.

Cost Type Behavior
1. Variable A. Has both fixed and variable components
2. Fixed B. Changes in total proportionally with activity
3. Mixed C. Remains constant in total within the relevant range

A) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
C) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
D) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

Answer:


Q15. Which is an example of a committed fixed cost?

A) Sales commission
B) Direct materials
C) Factory equipment depreciation
D) Variable electricity

Answer:


Q16. Fill in the blank:

The point where joint products become separately identifiable is called the ______ point.

A) Break-even
B) Contribution
C) Split-off
D) Recognition

Answer:


Q17. True or False:

Normal spoilage is generally treated as a cost of good units, whereas abnormal spoilage is treated as a loss.

A) False
B) True

Answer:


Q18. Abnormal spoilage is generally:

A) Expensed as a loss
B) Added to the cost of good units
C) Expected in the normal production process
D) Treated as a normal product cost

Answer:


Q19. Assertion (A):

Relevant costs are future costs that differ among alternatives.

Reason (R):

Sunk costs are irrelevant for decision-making.

A) A is false, R is true
B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
C) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
D) A is true, R is false

Answer:

Q20. Which concept focuses on "doing things right" using resources economically?

A) Effectiveness
B) Efficiency
C) Both efficiency and effectiveness
D) Neither

Answer: 


SECTION B — OVERHEAD & COSTING SYSTEMS

Q21–Q45

Q21. Predetermined overhead rate equals:

A) Budgeted overhead ÷ budgeted activity
B) Actual overhead ÷ budgeted activity
C) Budgeted overhead ÷ actual activity
D) Actual overhead ÷ actual activity

Answer:


Q22. When actual overhead is greater than applied overhead, overhead is:

A) Overapplied
B) Underapplied
C) Fully absorbed
D) Deferred

Answer:


Q23. Overapplied overhead means:

A) Actual overhead = applied overhead
B) Actual overhead > applied overhead
C) Actual overhead < applied overhead
D) No overhead was applied

Answer:


Q24. Under normal costing, manufacturing overhead is applied using:

A) Actual overhead rate × actual activity
B) Predetermined overhead rate × standard activity
C) Actual overhead rate × standard activity
D) Predetermined overhead rate × actual activity

Answer:


Q25. Under standard costing, overhead is generally applied using:

A) Predetermined overhead rate × actual activity
B) Predetermined overhead rate × standard activity allowed for actual output
C) Actual overhead rate × actual activity
D) Budgeted overhead ÷ actual activity

Answer:


Q26. If underapplied overhead is immaterial, it is generally:

A) Closed entirely to COGS
B) Deferred to the following period
C) Added to net income
D) Capitalized permanently

Answer:


Q27. Activity-Based Costing is most beneficial when:

A) There is only one product
B) All products consume overhead equally
C) Products differ significantly in their consumption of overhead activities
D) Overhead costs are insignificant

Answer:


Q28. The hierarchy of activities in ABC includes all EXCEPT:

A) Unit-level activities
B) Batch-level activities
C) Product-sustaining activities
D) Revenue-level activities

Answer:


Q29. A cost pool is:

A) A grouping of individual cost items associated with an activity
B) A single product cost
C) A period expense only
D) A single direct cost

Answer:


Q30. Cost allocation is:

A) Directly tracing costs to a cost object
B) Eliminating indirect costs
C) Assigning indirect costs to a cost object using a reasonable allocation base
D) Recording only variable costs

Answer:


Q31. Cost tracing is:

A) Prorating overhead
B) Directly assigning a cost to a cost object when the relationship can be identified
C) Allocating service department costs
D) Assigning indirect costs using a cost driver

Answer:


Q32. Cross-cost subsidization occurs when:

A) All products are costed equally
B) A product is overcosted while another is undercosted
C) Costs are traced directly
D) Overhead is eliminated

Answer:


Q33. Traditional volume-based costing tends to:

A) Eliminate overhead allocation
B) Undercost high-volume, simple products and overcost low-volume, complex products
C) Overcost high-volume products in every situation
D) Cost all products equally

Answer: 


Q34. A company estimates overhead of $500,000 and 25,000 machine hours. The predetermined overhead rate is:

A) $25 per machine hour
B) $10 per machine hour
C) $50 per machine hour
D) $20 per machine hour

Answer: 


Q35. Manufacturing overhead does NOT include:

A) Factory utilities
B) Indirect materials
C) Factory depreciation
D) Sales salaries

Answer:


Q36. The journal entry for abnormal spoilage, assuming no salvage value, would generally include:

A) Debit Loss from Abnormal Spoilage; Credit Work in Process
B) Debit Finished Goods; Credit Loss
C) Debit Work in Process; Credit Finished Goods
D) Debit Cost of Goods Sold; Credit Finished Goods

Answer:


Q37. Joint costs may be allocated using all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Physical units
B) Sales value at split-off
C) Net realizable value
D) Direct labor hours

Answer:


Q38. A by-product is generally:

A) Always the principal product
B) A product with relatively minor sales value compared with the main products
C) A product that never has sales value
D) Always classified as a joint product

Answer:


Q39. Under the NRV method, joint cost allocated to a product equals:

A) Total NRV ÷ joint costs
B) Product NRV × joint costs
C) (Product's NRV ÷ Total NRV) × Joint costs
D) Joint costs ÷ product NRV

Answer:


Q40. In the high-low method:

Variable cost per unit =
(High cost − Low cost) ÷ (High activity − ______ activity)

A) Average
B) Normal
C) Standard
D) Low

Answer:


Q41. The high-low method estimates:

A) Both fixed and variable components of a mixed cost
B) Only fixed costs
C) Only variable costs
D) Neither fixed nor variable costs

Answer:


Q42. Apportionment of overhead refers to:

A) Tracing direct materials
B) Eliminating overhead
C) Distributing common overhead costs among departments
D) Allocating only direct labor

Answer:


Q43. Reapportionment of overhead involves:

A) Assigning direct materials to products
B) Allocating service department costs to production departments
C) Calculating product selling prices
D) Recording only variable overhead

Answer:


Q44. The direct method of support department allocation:

A) Allocates support department costs only to production departments and ignores services between support departments
B) Recognizes all inter-support department services
C) Uses simultaneous equations
D) Allocates costs only to support departments

Answer:


Q45. The step-down method:

A) Is identical to the direct method
B) Uses simultaneous equations
C) Allocates support department costs sequentially and recognizes some inter-support services
D) Ignores all support department relationships

Answer:


SECTION C — FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING & REPORTING

Q46–Q75

Q46. Under the indirect method, the statement of cash flows begins operating activities with:

A) Gross profit
B) Cash collected from customers
C) Net income
D) EBITDA

Answer:


Q47. Which is NOT an operating cash flow adjustment under the indirect method?

A) Changes in accounts receivable
B) Purchase of equipment
C) Changes in inventory
D) Depreciation expense

Answer:


Q48. Under the indirect method, an increase in inventory generally:

A) Decreases operating cash flow
B) Increases operating cash flow
C) Has no effect
D) Is a financing activity

Answer:


Q49. A decrease in accounts payable generally:

A) Increases operating cash flow
B) Is an investing activity
C) Has no cash-flow effect
D) Decreases operating cash flow

Answer:


Q50. Which cash flow measure is particularly important when assessing a company's ability to generate cash from its core operations?

A) Operating cash flow
B) Investing cash flow
C) Financing cash flow
D) Ending cash balance alone

Answer: 


Q51. Under US GAAP, an impairment loss on a long-lived asset to be held and used is generally recognized when:

A) Carrying amount exceeds the asset's fair value after the applicable recoverability test
B) Fair value exceeds carrying amount
C) Historical cost exceeds replacement cost
D) Revenue falls below budget

Answer: 

CMA note: Avoid using "recoverable amount" here as a US-GAAP definition; that terminology is more associated with IFRS.


Q52. A finite-life intangible asset is generally:

A) Never amortized
B) Amortized over its useful life and subject to impairment testing when required
C) Only impairment tested and never amortized
D) Treated as goodwill

Answer:


Q53. Under US GAAP, goodwill is generally:

A) Amortized over 40 years
B) Expensed immediately
C) Not amortized for most public companies but tested for impairment at the reporting-unit level
D) Never tested for impairment

Answer:


Q54. Deferred taxes primarily arise from:

A) Temporary differences between financial reporting and tax bases
B) Permanent differences only
C) Current tax payments only
D) Dividends

Answer:


Q55. Current income tax expense/liability is generally based on:

A) Book income only
B) Taxable income under applicable tax rules
C) Other comprehensive income only
D) Gross profit only

Answer:


Q56. Which debt investment classification under US GAAP reports unrealized gains and losses generally in OCI?

A) Trading securities
B) Equity-method investments
C) Available-for-sale debt securities
D) Held-to-maturity securities

Answer:


Q57. Trading debt investments are generally reported at:

A) Fair value, with unrealized changes recognized in net income
B) Amortized cost
C) Historical cost
D) Fair value, with unrealized changes recognized in OCI

Answer:


Q58. Held-to-maturity debt investments are generally reported at:

A) Fair value through OCI
B) Amortized cost
C) Fair value through net income
D) Replacement cost

Answer:


Q59. An investment in an associate in which the investor has significant influence is generally accounted for using:

A) Fair value method
B) Consolidation method in all cases
C) Equity method
D) Treasury-stock method

Answer:


Q60. Intercompany receivables and payables between a parent and subsidiary should generally be:

A) Added to goodwill
B) Reported separately in the consolidated balance sheet
C) Eliminated in consolidation
D) Recognized as revenue

Answer:


Q61. An unrealized intercompany profit in inventory remaining within the consolidated group should generally be:

A) Recognized immediately as consolidated profit
B) Eliminated in consolidation until realized outside the group
C) Added to goodwill
D) Recorded as financing income

Answer:


Q62. Bond discount amortization generally:

A) Decreases interest expense
B) Increases interest expense
C) Decreases the bond liability
D) Increases cash interest paid

Answer:


Q63. Estimated warranty costs are generally recognized:

A) Only when cash is paid
B) When the warranty expires
C) In the period of sale when the loss is probable and reasonably estimable
D) Never until the customer files a claim

Answer:


Q64. If a noncancelable purchase commitment becomes an onerous contract and the applicable accounting requirements are met, the company may need to:

A) Recognize the applicable loss and liability/provision
B) Ignore the contract completely
C) Recognize revenue immediately
D) Capitalize the entire loss as goodwill

Answer:


Q65. Depletion is primarily used for:

A) Patents
B) Buildings
C) Natural resources
D) Equipment

Answer:


Q66. Amortization is generally used for:

A) Land
B) Finite-life intangible assets
C) Natural resources
D) Inventory

Answer:


Q67. Treasury stock is:

A) A liability
B) A revenue account
C) A contra-equity account
D) An operating asset

Answer:


Q68. A stock dividend generally:

A) Increases total shareholders' equity
B) Decreases total shareholders' equity
C) Redistributes amounts within equity without changing total shareholders' equity
D) Increases cash

Answer:


Q69. Which is a contra-asset account?

A) Treasury stock
B) Retained earnings
C) Common stock
D) Accumulated depreciation

Answer:


Q70. Net income includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Interest expense
B) Tax expense
C) Operating income
D) Other comprehensive income

Answer:


Q71. Other comprehensive income may include:

A) Cost of goods sold
B) Sales revenue
C) Certain foreign currency translation adjustments
D) Ordinary operating expenses

Answer:


Q72. Assertion (A):

Available-for-sale debt investments are reported at fair value.

Reason (R):

Changes in fair value of trading securities are generally reported in OCI.

A) Both A and R are true, and R explains A
B) A is false, R is true
C) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
D) A is true, R is false

Answer:


Q73. The residual theory of equity suggests that:

A) Equity is the residual interest in assets after deducting liabilities
B) Equity is equal to liabilities
C) Equity has priority over all creditors
D) Equity is always fixed

Answer:


Q74. Proprietary theory focuses primarily on:

A) Government perspective
B) Creditors' perspective
C) Owners' perspective
D) Entity-as-a-separate-person perspective

Answer:


Q75. A deferred tax liability generally arises when:

A) There is a permanent difference
B) Taxable income is temporarily greater than book income
C) Book income is temporarily greater than taxable income
D) There is no timing difference

Answer:


SECTION D — ADVANCED TOPICS & LOGICAL REASONING

Q76–Q100

Q76. Cost control primarily aims to:

A) Eliminate every cost
B) Increase costs
C) Keep actual costs within predetermined standards or targets
D) Permanently reduce all unit costs

Answer:


Q77. Cost reduction generally means:

A) Achieving a sustainable reduction in unit cost without sacrificing required quality or performance
B) Maintaining costs at current levels
C) Temporarily reducing expenses
D) Increasing fixed costs

Answer:


Q78. Markup percentage is generally calculated as:

A) Profit ÷ selling price
B) Cost ÷ selling price
C) Profit ÷ cost
D) Revenue ÷ profit

Answer:


Q79. Profit margin is generally:

A) Profit ÷ selling price
B) Profit ÷ cost
C) Cost ÷ profit
D) Revenue ÷ cost

Answer: 


Q80. A cost object is:

A) Always a product
B) Anything for which costs are measured and assigned
C) Always a department
D) Always a customer

Answer:


Q81. Overcosting a product means:

A) It is assigned more overhead than the resources it actually consumes
B) It is assigned less overhead than it consumes
C) No overhead is assigned
D) It is assigned exactly the overhead it consumes

Answer:


Q82. Undercosting a product can lead to:

A) Elimination of overhead
B) Cross-subsidization of other products
C) Lower selling prices automatically
D) No effect on decision-making

Answer: 


Q83. Match the impairment treatment with the asset type.

Asset Treatment
1. Finite-life intangible A. Generally not amortized; tested for impairment
2. Indefinite-life intangible B. Amortized over useful life; tested for impairment when required
3. Goodwill C. Generally not amortized for most public companies; tested for impairment

A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
C) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
D) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Answer:


Q84. Allowance for credit losses is generally a:

A) Liability
B) Revenue account
C) Contra-asset account
D) Contra-equity account

Answer:


Q85. Under the equity method, significant influence is commonly presumed when ownership is approximately:

A) Less than 5%
B) 20%–50%
C) More than 75%
D) Exactly 100%

Answer: 


Q86. To classify a debt investment as held-to-maturity, the investor must generally have:

A) Trading intent
B) Intent and ability to hold the debt security until maturity
C) An ownership interest greater than 50%
D) An equity-method relationship

Answer: 


Q87. Bond premium amortization generally:

A) Increases interest expense
B) Decreases interest expense
C) Increases the cash interest payment
D) Has no effect on interest expense

Answer: 


Q88. Estimated warranty expense is generally recognized:

A) When cash is paid
B) When the warranty expires
C) In the period in which the related sale occurs, when recognition criteria are met
D) Only when a customer makes a claim

Answer: 


Q89. Which is a contra-equity account?

A) Treasury stock
B) Accumulated depreciation
C) Inventory
D) Allowance for credit losses

Answer: 


Q90. A stock dividend generally:

A) Increases total stockholders' equity
B) Has no effect on total stockholders' equity
C) Decreases total stockholders' equity
D) Increases cash

Answer: 


Q91. Assertion (A):

ABC costing can provide more accurate product costs than a simple volume-based system when products consume activities differently.

Reason (R):

ABC uses multiple activity cost drivers to assign overhead.

A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
B) A is true, R is false
C) A is false, R is true
D) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

Answer: 


Q92. Under normal spoilage accounting, the cost of normal spoilage is generally:

A) Charged immediately to a separate abnormal-loss account
B) Included in the cost of good units produced
C) Treated as a financing cost
D) Always charged to COGS immediately

Answer: 


Q93. By-products may generally be accounted for using:

A) Only the equity method
B) Only the production method
C) Production or sales methods, depending on the accounting approach
D) Only the sales method

Answer: 


Q94. A cost driver is:

A) A sunk cost
B) A factor that causes or drives changes in the cost of an activity
C) A period cost
D) A product's selling price

Answer: 


Q95. The reciprocal method of support department allocation:

A) Ignores inter-support department services
B) Uses simultaneous equations to recognize reciprocal services among support departments
C) Allocates costs only to support departments
D) Is identical to the direct method

Answer: 


Q96. Fill in the blank:

______ costs have already been incurred and cannot be changed by future decisions.

A) Opportunity
B) Relevant
C) Sunk
D) Differential

Answer:


Q97. If a company has overapplied overhead:

A) Actual overhead is greater than applied overhead
B) Actual overhead is less than applied overhead
C) Actual overhead equals applied overhead
D) The predetermined rate must have been zero

Answer: 


Q98. Odd Man Out: Which is NOT a common method of joint cost allocation?

A) Physical units
B) Sales value at split-off
C) Net realizable value
D) Straight-line depreciation method

Answer: 


Q99. The difference between actual overhead and applied overhead is associated with:

A) Overhead underapplied or overapplied
B) Gross profit
C) Contribution margin
D) Opportunity cost

Answer: 


Q100. Assertion (A):

A deferred tax asset can arise when taxable income is temporarily higher than book income.

Reason (R):

Certain temporary differences cause taxes to be paid earlier than the related financial-reporting expense is recognized, creating a future tax benefit.

A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
B) A is true, R is false
C) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
D) A is false, R is true

Answer: 


www.gmsisuccess.in


Monday, September 21, 2026

CIA Part 1 🔥 MCQs on Objectivity, Integrity & Impairment

 


GMSiSuccess – CIA Part 1

🔥 MCQs on Objectivity, Integrity & Impairment(Answers provided at the end,first solve then check yourself)

Exam focus: Actual vs. perceived impairment • self-review • familiarity • conflict of interest • intimidation • gifts • financial interests • operational responsibility • scope limitation • reporting lines • safeguards.

Important 2026 update: These questions are aligned primarily with the 2024 Global Internal Audit Standards, which became effective January 9, 2025. The current Standard 2.2 specifically requires internal auditors to recognize and avoid or mitigate actual, potential, and perceived impairments. It also establishes the 12-month presumption when an auditor provides assurance over an activity for which they had responsibility within the previous 12 months.


SECTION A — ACTUAL vs. PERCEIVED IMPAIRMENT

Q1.

An internal auditor was responsible for approving vendor payments until 10 months ago. The auditor is now assigned an assurance engagement over the vendor-payment process. What is the MOST appropriate conclusion?

A) Objectivity is presumed impaired
B) Objectivity is automatically restored after 6 months
C) There is no issue if the auditor signs an independence declaration
D) Objectivity is impaired only if fraud is discovered

Answer: 


Q2.

An auditor left the payroll department 14 months ago and is now assigned to audit payroll. Which statement is MOST accurate?

A) The auditor can never audit payroll again
B) The 12-month presumption of impairment no longer automatically applies
C) Objectivity is automatically impaired forever
D) The auditor must resign from internal audit

Answer: 


Q3.

An auditor says, "I am completely honest, therefore I cannot have an objectivity impairment." What is the BEST response?

A) Correct—integrity eliminates impairment
B) Correct if the CAE agrees
C) Incorrect—impairments can exist even when unintended
D) Correct unless fraud is involved

Answer: 


Q4.

An auditor's close friend is the manager of the department being audited. The auditor believes he can remain completely neutral. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Competency
B) Confidentiality
C) Objectivity
D) Due professional care

Answer: 


Q5.

Which situation BEST represents a self-review threat?

A) Auditor has lunch with an auditee
B) Auditor audits controls he previously designed
C) Auditor attends professional training
D) Auditor changes audit software

Answer: 


SECTION B — FAMILY & CONFLICT OF INTEREST

Q6.

An auditor is assigned to audit procurement. Her spouse is the procurement director. What should she do FIRST?

A) Accept the assignment because she is professionally qualified
B) Ignore the relationship unless bias actually occurs
C) Disclose the potential impairment
D) Ask the procurement director to approve the audit plan

Answer: 


Q7.

Which statement about a conflict of interest is MOST accurate?

A) A conflict exists only after unethical conduct occurs
B) A conflict exists only when financial loss occurs
C) A conflict may exist even when no unethical act occurs
D) A conflict exists only when management complains

Answer: 


Q8.

An auditor's brother works in the audited department, but they have very little personal contact. Which is the BEST approach?

A) Automatically conclude there is no impairment
B) Automatically conclude there is actual bias
C) Evaluate and disclose the potential impairment according to methodology
D) Transfer the brother to another company

Answer: 

Q9.

An auditor discovers that the auditee is a close personal friend. The auditor does not believe the relationship affects judgment. What is MOST appropriate?

A) No action because there is no actual bias
B) Consider both actual and perceived impairment
C) Continue secretly
D) Delete the relationship from the audit documentation

Answer: 


Q10.

Which situation creates the STRONGEST conflict-of-interest concern?

A) Auditor attended the same professional conference as the auditee
B) Auditor's spouse is responsible for the activity being audited
C) Auditor knows the auditee's job title
D) Auditor previously audited another unrelated department

Answer: 


SECTION C — GIFTS, FAVORS & INTEGRITY

Q11.

An auditee offers an internal auditor an expensive vacation package immediately before completion of the audit. The auditor accepts it but insists, "It will not affect my judgment." What is the BEST answer?

A) Acceptable because judgment is unaffected
B) Acceptable if disclosed after the audit
C) The gift may impair or be presumed to impair objectivity
D) Acceptable if management approves

Answer: 


Q12.

An auditee gives an auditor a low-value box of sweets during a festival. What is the BEST answer?

A) Every gift automatically creates actual impairment
B) Every gift is automatically acceptable
C) Apply the organization's policy and assess whether objectivity may be impaired or presumed impaired
D) Accept it secretly

Answer: .


Q13.

An auditor receives a small gift that organizational policy expressly prohibits. What is the PRIMARY issue?

A) The value makes it irrelevant
B) The auditor should follow the organization's applicable policy and disclose/manage the situation
C) It is automatically a criminal offense
D) It automatically proves fraudulent intent

Answer: 


Q14.

Which statement is MOST consistent with the current IIA Standards?

A) Gifts are prohibited only if they exceed a specific monetary amount
B) Gifts are acceptable if the auditor promises neutrality
C) Gifts that may impair or be presumed to impair objectivity must not be accepted
D) Gifts are prohibited only for CAEs

Answer: 


Q15.

An auditor says, "The auditee gave me the gift after the audit, so it cannot affect objectivity." What is the BEST response?

A) Always correct
B) Timing alone does not eliminate the need to consider objectivity and applicable policy
C) Gifts after audits are always acceptable
D) Only cash gifts matter

Answer: 


SECTION D — FINANCIAL INTEREST

Q16.

An auditor owns shares in the company and is assigned to audit financial reporting. What should be considered FIRST?

A) Only the number of shares
B) Whether the financial interest creates an actual, potential, or perceived impairment
C) Whether the auditor has passed the CIA exam
D) Whether the CFO knows about the shares

Answer: 


Q17.

An auditor says, "I own only a small investment, so I don't need to disclose it." What is the BEST response?

A) Always correct
B) Never consider financial interests
C) The auditor should evaluate the conflict under applicable methodology and disclose/manage it as required
D) Financial interests matter only for external auditors

Answer: 


Q18.

Which is the STRONGEST example of a self-interest threat?

A) Auditor has a financial interest in the outcome of the audited activity
B) Auditor attends training
C) Auditor changes audit software
D) Auditor reviews working papers

Answer: 


SECTION E — FAMILIARITY & LONG TENURE

Q19.

An auditor has audited the same branch for 9 years and is personally close to branch management. What is the PRIMARY risk?

A) Competency impairment
B) Familiarity/objectivity risk
C) Confidentiality impairment
D) Accounting error

Answer: 


Q20.

Which statement about long tenure is MOST accurate?

A) Long tenure automatically proves actual bias
B) Long tenure can create familiarity and perceived objectivity concerns
C) Long tenure never matters
D) Long tenure requires automatic dismissal

Answer: 


Q21.

An auditor has worked with the same management team for many years but remains professionally independent. What is the BEST safeguard if familiarity becomes a concern?

A) Ignore the issue
B) Consider reassignment, independent review, or another appropriate safeguard
C) Destroy old audit reports
D) Allow management to rewrite findings

Answer: 


SECTION F — INTIMIDATION & MANAGEMENT PRESSURE

Q22.

The CFO tells an auditor, "If you report this control deficiency, I will ensure you never receive a promotion." This is primarily:

A) Familiarity threat
B) Intimidation threat
C) Competency issue
D) Confidentiality issue

Answer: 


Q23.

An auditor discovers fraud but management threatens disciplinary action if the finding is reported. What is the MOST appropriate response?

A) Remove the finding
B) Report the matter through the appropriate internal audit/governance channels
C) Ask management to decide whether the fraud exists
D) Delay the report indefinitely

Answer: 


Q24.

A senior executive repeatedly tells an auditor which conclusions should appear in the final report. The auditor feels pressured. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Impairment of objectivity/independence
B) Lack of accounting knowledge
C) Sampling error
D) Audit evidence quantity

Answer: 


Q25.

An auditor changes a finding solely because the CFO threatens the auditor's career. Which principle is MOST directly violated?

A) Confidentiality
B) Objectivity
C) Competency
D) Professional development

Answer: 


SECTION G — OPERATIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES

Q26.

An internal auditor temporarily performs Accounts Receivable processing because of a staffing shortage. Six months later, the same auditor is assigned assurance over Accounts Receivable. What is the MAIN concern?

A) Self-review/objectivity impairment
B) No issue because the work was temporary
C) Only confidentiality
D) Only competency

Answer: 


Q27.

The CAE is asked to assume responsibility for risk management in addition to internal audit. What is the BEST answer?

A) It is always prohibited
B) It is always acceptable without safeguards
C) Safeguards must be established to limit impairment to independence or objectivity
D) The CAE automatically becomes independent

Answer: 

Q28.

The CAE becomes responsible for a function and later internal audit is asked to provide assurance over that function. What is required?

A) CAE alone can perform the assurance engagement
B) The assurance engagement should be overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity
C) Management should perform the audit
D) No safeguards are needed

Answer: 


SECTION H — CONSULTING vs. ASSURANCE

Q29.

Internal audit previously provided advisory services regarding a new risk-management framework. Later, internal audit is asked to provide assurance over that framework. What is the BEST answer?

A) Assurance is automatically prohibited
B) Assurance may be provided if the nature of the advisory work did not impair objectivity and individual objectivity is appropriately managed
C) Consulting always destroys independence
D) The same auditor must perform both assignments

Answer: 


Q30.

An auditor previously advised management on designing a control. Management now asks the SAME auditor to conclude whether that control is effective. What is the key question?

A) Did the auditor receive a salary increase?
B) Could the prior advisory role impair objectivity?
C) Is the auditor technically qualified?
D) Did management approve the audit fee?

Answer: 


Q31.

An auditor previously had responsibility for an operation and is now asked to provide advisory services concerning that operation. What is the MOST accurate statement?

A) Advisory services are automatically prohibited
B) The auditor may provide advisory services but must disclose potential impairments before accepting the engagement
C) The auditor must provide assurance instead
D) No disclosure is ever necessary

Answer: 


SECTION I — SCOPE LIMITATIONS

Q32.

Management tells the CAE, "You may audit inventory, but you are forbidden from examining executive expenses." What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Scope limitation
B) Sampling error
C) Competency deficiency
D) Confidentiality issue

Answer: 


Q33.

An auditor is denied access to important records necessary for an engagement. What should the auditor recognize?

A) No issue because management owns the records
B) Potential impairment/restriction affecting the audit
C) Only a training issue
D) Automatic fraud

Answer: 


Q34.

Management asks the auditor to remove a significant finding from the final report. What is the BEST response?

A) Remove it because management is senior
B) Evaluate the interference and communicate/report through appropriate governance channels
C) Destroy the working papers
D) Replace the entire audit team

Answer: 


Q35.

Which is NOT an appropriate reason for accepting a management-imposed restriction?

A) Convenience
B) Management seniority
C) Fear of damaging relationships
D) None of the above

Answer: 



SECTION J — REPORTING RELATIONSHIPS

Q36.

The CAE reports functionally to the CFO, who is frequently audited by internal audit. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Strong independence
B) Potential organizational independence impairment
C) Improved objectivity
D) No issue if the CFO is qualified

Answer: 


Q37.

Which reporting arrangement BEST supports organizational independence?

A) CAE reports functionally to the board/audit committee
B) CAE reports only to the CFO
C) CAE reports only to the controller
D) CAE reports only to the head of operations

Answer: 



Q38.

Administrative reporting of the CAE to the CEO is:

A) Automatically prohibited
B) Generally compatible with functional reporting to the board, subject to the organization's governance arrangements
C) Always superior to audit committee reporting
D) Evidence of actual bias

Answer: 


Q39.

The CAE has no direct access to the Audit Committee. Which is the MOST important concern?

A) Organizational independence
B) Accounting classification
C) Sampling risk
D) Auditor competency

Answer:


SECTION K — PERFORMANCE EVALUATION & FAMILY RELATIONSHIPS

Q40.

The CAE's spouse works as a staff auditor. The CAE alone determines the spouse's performance rating and compensation. What is the BEST safeguard?

A) Do nothing
B) Independent evaluation of the spouse's performance
C) Increase the spouse's compensation
D) Transfer the spouse to finance automatically

Answer:


Q41.

A staff auditor is assigned to audit an area directly controlled by the auditor's spouse. What should happen?

A) Proceed because marriage has no effect on professional judgment
B) Assess/disclose the conflict and use an appropriate safeguard, potentially reassignment
C) Ask the spouse to write the audit report
D) Eliminate all audit evidence

Answer:


Q42.

Two auditors are married but work on unrelated audit areas and have no supervisory relationship. Which conclusion is MOST appropriate?

A) Marriage automatically prohibits both from internal audit
B) Marriage automatically proves actual impairment
C) The relationship should be considered under the organization's objectivity/conflict methodology; it does not automatically establish impairment in every assignment
D) One must resign

Answer:


SECTION L — DISCLOSURE & SAFEGUARDS

Q43.

An auditor discovers a potential impairment before an engagement begins. What is the BEST approach?

A) Hide it because the auditor believes he can remain objective
B) Discuss/disclose the impairment and take appropriate action
C) Wait until the final report
D) Ask the auditee to ignore it

Answer: 


Q44.

An auditor discovers an objectivity impairment after completing an engagement, and the impairment may affect the reliability or perceived reliability of the conclusions. What should happen?

A) Ignore it because the engagement is closed
B) Appropriate parties should be informed and appropriate action determined
C) Delete the report
D) Automatically repeat the entire audit

Answer


Q45.

Which is generally the BEST first principle when an impairment is identified?

A) Hide the impairment
B) Disclose and appropriately manage the impairment
C) Continue regardless
D) Allow the auditee to decide whether the impairment exists

Answer:


SECTION M — EXTREME TRICK QUESTIONS

Q46.

An auditor says: "There is no actual bias, therefore there is no objectivity problem." Which answer is MOST accurate?

A) Correct
B) Incorrect because perceived impairment can also matter
C) Correct if the audit evidence is sufficient
D) Correct if the CAE agrees

Answer


Q47.

Which statement is FALSE?

A) An impairment may exist even if unintended
B) Conflicts of interest can undermine confidence in objectivity
C) Every perceived impairment automatically proves actual bias
D) Appropriate safeguards can be used to manage impairments

Answer: 


Q48.

An auditor previously worked in a department but has never personally designed or operated the specific control now being audited. What is the BEST conclusion?

A) Previous employment automatically means actual impairment
B) No assessment is necessary
C) Assess whether the auditor had responsibility for the activity and whether any actual, potential, or perceived impairment exists
D) The audit must automatically be cancelled

Answer:


Q49.

Which sequence BEST represents the logical approach to an objectivity question?

A) Find the answer → then identify the impairment
B) Identify the relationship/interest → determine actual/potential/perceived impairment → disclose/manage → apply safeguard
C) Ask management → accept management's decision
D) Determine whether fraud exists → then consider objectivity

Answer:


Q50.

An auditor says:

"I have no personal interest, no family relationship, no financial interest and no prior responsibility. However, senior management has explicitly instructed me not to report a significant finding."

What is the BEST conclusion?

A) No impairment because there is no personal conflict
B) Potential impairment caused by management influence/intimidation
C) Only a competency problem
D) No issue because management owns the organization

Answer:.


🔥 10 SUPER-TRICKY EXAM QUESTIONS

Q51.

An auditor had responsibility for an activity 13 months ago. There is no current personal relationship or financial interest. What is the BEST answer?

A) Automatically impaired because prior responsibility is permanent
B) The 12-month presumption no longer applies, but other impairment factors should still be assessed
C) Automatically independent
D) Cannot ever audit the activity

Answer: 


Q52.

Which phrase should immediately alert a CIA candidate to a possible objectivity problem?

A) "Reviewed supporting documentation"
B) "Previously responsible for the activity"
C) "Obtained sufficient evidence"
D) "Prepared audit working papers"

Answer: 


Q53.

An auditor's friend offers the auditor confidential information in exchange for keeping a control deficiency out of the report. The auditor refuses. What is the BEST conclusion?

A) The offer itself should be considered when evaluating objectivity/integrity
B) There is no issue because the auditor refused
C) The auditor must accept the information
D) The deficiency should be deleted

Answer: 


Q54.

Which situation is MOST clearly a self-review concern?

A) Auditor evaluates a control designed by another independent department
B) Auditor evaluates a control that the auditor personally designed and implemented
C) Auditor reviews a public report
D) Auditor attends an audit committee meeting

Answer:


Q55.

A manager tells an auditor, "You can report the finding, but your annual bonus will be reduced." The auditor changes the finding. What is the MOST important issue?

A) Objectivity impairment due to undue influence/intimidation
B) Sampling methodology
C) Audit documentation format
D) Competency

Answer:


Q56.

Which statement is MOST dangerous for a CIA candidate to assume?

A) "Perception matters."
B) "Disclosure may be required."
C) "If I personally feel objective, there can never be an impairment."
D) "Safeguards may mitigate an impairment."

Answer:


Q57.

An auditor's previous advisory work involved a process, but another auditor—not the original advisor—is assigned to provide assurance. What is the BEST reason this arrangement may reduce risk?

A) It eliminates all organizational risks
B) It helps manage individual objectivity/self-review concerns
C) It eliminates the need for evidence
D) It makes management responsible for the audit

Answer:


Q58.

Which combination is MOST likely to require immediate attention?

A) Long friendship + audited area
B) Training attendance + audit assignment
C) New audit software + audit assignment
D) Professional membership + audit assignment

Answer:


Q59.

An auditor says:

"Management is restricting my scope, but the restricted area is not important."

What should the auditor do?

A) Automatically accept the restriction
B) Evaluate and appropriately disclose/manage the scope limitation based on its nature and impact
C) Ignore it
D) Remove the restricted area from the audit plan without documentation

Answer: 


Q60.

Which statement BEST summarizes the objectivity principle?

A) "I must actually be unbiased."
B) "Others must believe I am unbiased."
C) "I must maintain impartial judgment and recognize/manage actual, potential and perceived impairments."
D) "Management decides whether I am objective."

Answer:


🧠 CIA PART 1 — MASTER LOGIC

Remember this sequence:

CONFLICT → IMPAIRMENT → DISCLOSURE → SAFEGUARD → ACTION

Trigger in question What to think
Previous responsibility <12 months 🚨 12-month presumption
Own work/control design 🔄 Self-review
Family/spouse/friend 👥 Conflict/familiarity
Shares/financial interest 💰 Self-interest
Gift/favor/reward 🎁 Objectivity risk
Threat/promotion/bonus ⚠️ Intimidation
Management restricts scope 🚧 Scope limitation
Denied records/access 🚧 Independence concern
Operational responsibility 🔄 Self-review
Long relationship 👥 Familiarity
Prior consulting 🔄 Assess self-review/objectivity
CAE has non-audit responsibility 🏢 Safeguards required
CFO controls CAE functionally 🏢 Independence concern
No Board/Audit Committee access 🏢 Organizational independence
Impairment discovered after engagement 📢 Disclose/manage impact

⚡ The biggest CIA exam trap

Do NOT automatically equate:

"Perceived impairment" = "actual bias."

The current Standards require attention to actual, potential, and perceived impairments.

Also remember:

12 months is a specific presumption for assurance over an activity for which the auditor had responsibility—not a universal rule that every prior relationship becomes acceptable after exactly 12 months.

Current IIA reference: The 2024 Global Internal Audit Standards replaced the 2017 IPPF and became effective January 9, 2025. 


ANSWERS:

GMSiSuccess – CIA Part 1

🔥  MCQs on Objectivity, Integrity & Impairment

Exam focus: Actual vs. perceived impairment • self-review • familiarity • conflict of interest • intimidation • gifts • financial interests • operational responsibility • scope limitation • reporting lines • safeguards.

Important 2026 update: These questions are aligned primarily with the 2024 Global Internal Audit Standards, which became effective January 9, 2025. The current Standard 2.2 specifically requires internal auditors to recognize and avoid or mitigate actual, potential, and perceived impairments. It also establishes the 12-month presumption when an auditor provides assurance over an activity for which they had responsibility within the previous 12 months.


SECTION A — ACTUAL vs. PERCEIVED IMPAIRMENT

Q1.

An internal auditor was responsible for approving vendor payments until 10 months ago. The auditor is now assigned an assurance engagement over the vendor-payment process. What is the MOST appropriate conclusion?

A) Objectivity is presumed impaired
B) Objectivity is automatically restored after 6 months
C) There is no issue if the auditor signs an independence declaration
D) Objectivity is impaired only if fraud is discovered

Answer: A

Explanation: Under Standard 2.2, objectivity is presumed to be impaired when assurance is provided over an activity for which the auditor had responsibility within the previous 12 months.

Trap: 10 months ≠ 12 months.


Q2.

An auditor left the payroll department 14 months ago and is now assigned to audit payroll. Which statement is MOST accurate?

A) The auditor can never audit payroll again
B) The 12-month presumption of impairment no longer automatically applies
C) Objectivity is automatically impaired forever
D) The auditor must resign from internal audit

Answer: B

Explanation: The specific 12-month presumption has passed. However, the auditor must still consider any actual, potential, or perceived impairment.


Q3.

An auditor says, "I am completely honest, therefore I cannot have an objectivity impairment." What is the BEST response?

A) Correct—integrity eliminates impairment
B) Correct if the CAE agrees
C) Incorrect—impairments can exist even when unintended
D) Correct unless fraud is involved

Answer: C

Explanation: Objectivity concerns impartial judgment. An impairment may exist in fact or appearance, even without intentional wrongdoing.


Q4.

An auditor's close friend is the manager of the department being audited. The auditor believes he can remain completely neutral. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Competency
B) Confidentiality
C) Objectivity
D) Due professional care

Answer: C

Explanation: A personal relationship may create an actual, potential, or perceived impairment.


Q5.

Which situation BEST represents a self-review threat?

A) Auditor has lunch with an auditee
B) Auditor audits controls he previously designed
C) Auditor attends professional training
D) Auditor changes audit software

Answer: B

Explanation: Reviewing one's own previous work creates a classic self-review concern.


SECTION B — FAMILY & CONFLICT OF INTEREST

Q6.

An auditor is assigned to audit procurement. Her spouse is the procurement director. What should she do FIRST?

A) Accept the assignment because she is professionally qualified
B) Ignore the relationship unless bias actually occurs
C) Disclose the potential impairment
D) Ask the procurement director to approve the audit plan

Answer: C

Explanation: The relationship creates a potential/perceived conflict that should be disclosed and appropriately managed.


Q7.

Which statement about a conflict of interest is MOST accurate?

A) A conflict exists only after unethical conduct occurs
B) A conflict exists only when financial loss occurs
C) A conflict may exist even when no unethical act occurs
D) A conflict exists only when management complains

Answer: C

The IIA explains that a conflict of interest can exist even when no unethical or improper act results.


Q8.

An auditor's brother works in the audited department, but they have very little personal contact. Which is the BEST approach?

A) Automatically conclude there is no impairment
B) Automatically conclude there is actual bias
C) Evaluate and disclose the potential impairment according to methodology
D) Transfer the brother to another company

Answer: C

Trap: The relationship should not be ignored merely because the auditor claims neutrality.


Q9.

An auditor discovers that the auditee is a close personal friend. The auditor does not believe the relationship affects judgment. What is MOST appropriate?

A) No action because there is no actual bias
B) Consider both actual and perceived impairment
C) Continue secretly
D) Delete the relationship from the audit documentation

Answer: B

Explanation: Current standards specifically recognize actual, potential, and perceived impairments.


Q10.

Which situation creates the STRONGEST conflict-of-interest concern?

A) Auditor attended the same professional conference as the auditee
B) Auditor's spouse is responsible for the activity being audited
C) Auditor knows the auditee's job title
D) Auditor previously audited another unrelated department

Answer: B


SECTION C — GIFTS, FAVORS & INTEGRITY

Q11.

An auditee offers an internal auditor an expensive vacation package immediately before completion of the audit. The auditor accepts it but insists, "It will not affect my judgment." What is the BEST answer?

A) Acceptable because judgment is unaffected
B) Acceptable if disclosed after the audit
C) The gift may impair or be presumed to impair objectivity
D) Acceptable if management approves

Answer: C

Standard 2.2 says auditors must not accept tangible or intangible items such as gifts, rewards, or favors that may impair or be presumed to impair objectivity.


Q12.

An auditee gives an auditor a low-value box of sweets during a festival. What is the BEST answer?

A) Every gift automatically creates actual impairment
B) Every gift is automatically acceptable
C) Apply the organization's policy and assess whether objectivity may be impaired or presumed impaired
D) Accept it secretly

Answer: C

Trap: Do not invent a universal monetary threshold. The current Standard does not establish a blanket "₹X is acceptable" rule.


Q13.

An auditor receives a small gift that organizational policy expressly prohibits. What is the PRIMARY issue?

A) The value makes it irrelevant
B) The auditor should follow the organization's applicable policy and disclose/manage the situation
C) It is automatically a criminal offense
D) It automatically proves fraudulent intent

Answer: B


Q14.

Which statement is MOST consistent with the current IIA Standards?

A) Gifts are prohibited only if they exceed a specific monetary amount
B) Gifts are acceptable if the auditor promises neutrality
C) Gifts that may impair or be presumed to impair objectivity must not be accepted
D) Gifts are prohibited only for CAEs

Answer: C


Q15.

An auditor says, "The auditee gave me the gift after the audit, so it cannot affect objectivity." What is the BEST response?

A) Always correct
B) Timing alone does not eliminate the need to consider objectivity and applicable policy
C) Gifts after audits are always acceptable
D) Only cash gifts matter

Answer: B


SECTION D — FINANCIAL INTEREST

Q16.

An auditor owns shares in the company and is assigned to audit financial reporting. What should be considered FIRST?

A) Only the number of shares
B) Whether the financial interest creates an actual, potential, or perceived impairment
C) Whether the auditor has passed the CIA exam
D) Whether the CFO knows about the shares

Answer: B


Q17.

An auditor says, "I own only a small investment, so I don't need to disclose it." What is the BEST response?

A) Always correct
B) Never consider financial interests
C) The auditor should evaluate the conflict under applicable methodology and disclose/manage it as required
D) Financial interests matter only for external auditors

Answer: C


Q18.

Which is the STRONGEST example of a self-interest threat?

A) Auditor has a financial interest in the outcome of the audited activity
B) Auditor attends training
C) Auditor changes audit software
D) Auditor reviews working papers

Answer: A


SECTION E — FAMILIARITY & LONG TENURE

Q19.

An auditor has audited the same branch for 9 years and is personally close to branch management. What is the PRIMARY risk?

A) Competency impairment
B) Familiarity/objectivity risk
C) Confidentiality impairment
D) Accounting error

Answer: B


Q20.

Which statement about long tenure is MOST accurate?

A) Long tenure automatically proves actual bias
B) Long tenure can create familiarity and perceived objectivity concerns
C) Long tenure never matters
D) Long tenure requires automatic dismissal

Answer: B

Trap: Do not convert a familiarity risk automatically into proven actual bias.


Q21.

An auditor has worked with the same management team for many years but remains professionally independent. What is the BEST safeguard if familiarity becomes a concern?

A) Ignore the issue
B) Consider reassignment, independent review, or another appropriate safeguard
C) Destroy old audit reports
D) Allow management to rewrite findings

Answer: B


SECTION F — INTIMIDATION & MANAGEMENT PRESSURE

Q22.

The CFO tells an auditor, "If you report this control deficiency, I will ensure you never receive a promotion." This is primarily:

A) Familiarity threat
B) Intimidation threat
C) Competency issue
D) Confidentiality issue

Answer: B


Q23.

An auditor discovers fraud but management threatens disciplinary action if the finding is reported. What is the MOST appropriate response?

A) Remove the finding
B) Report the matter through the appropriate internal audit/governance channels
C) Ask management to decide whether the fraud exists
D) Delay the report indefinitely

Answer: B


Q24.

A senior executive repeatedly tells an auditor which conclusions should appear in the final report. The auditor feels pressured. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Impairment of objectivity/independence
B) Lack of accounting knowledge
C) Sampling error
D) Audit evidence quantity

Answer: A


Q25.

An auditor changes a finding solely because the CFO threatens the auditor's career. Which principle is MOST directly violated?

A) Confidentiality
B) Objectivity
C) Competency
D) Professional development

Answer: B


SECTION G — OPERATIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES

Q26.

An internal auditor temporarily performs Accounts Receivable processing because of a staffing shortage. Six months later, the same auditor is assigned assurance over Accounts Receivable. What is the MAIN concern?

A) Self-review/objectivity impairment
B) No issue because the work was temporary
C) Only confidentiality
D) Only competency

Answer: A


Q27.

The CAE is asked to assume responsibility for risk management in addition to internal audit. What is the BEST answer?

A) It is always prohibited
B) It is always acceptable without safeguards
C) Safeguards must be established to limit impairment to independence or objectivity
D) The CAE automatically becomes independent

Answer: C

Current Standard 1112 specifically addresses CAE roles outside internal auditing and requires safeguards where independence or objectivity may be impaired.


Q28.

The CAE becomes responsible for a function and later internal audit is asked to provide assurance over that function. What is required?

A) CAE alone can perform the assurance engagement
B) The assurance engagement should be overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity
C) Management should perform the audit
D) No safeguards are needed

Answer: B


SECTION H — CONSULTING vs. ASSURANCE

Q29.

Internal audit previously provided advisory services regarding a new risk-management framework. Later, internal audit is asked to provide assurance over that framework. What is the BEST answer?

A) Assurance is automatically prohibited
B) Assurance may be provided if the nature of the advisory work did not impair objectivity and individual objectivity is appropriately managed
C) Consulting always destroys independence
D) The same auditor must perform both assignments

Answer: B

The 2024 Standards specifically permit assurance after advisory work when the conditions concerning objectivity and resource assignment are satisfied.


Q30.

An auditor previously advised management on designing a control. Management now asks the SAME auditor to conclude whether that control is effective. What is the key question?

A) Did the auditor receive a salary increase?
B) Could the prior advisory role impair objectivity?
C) Is the auditor technically qualified?
D) Did management approve the audit fee?

Answer: B


Q31.

An auditor previously had responsibility for an operation and is now asked to provide advisory services concerning that operation. What is the MOST accurate statement?

A) Advisory services are automatically prohibited
B) The auditor may provide advisory services but must disclose potential impairments before accepting the engagement
C) The auditor must provide assurance instead
D) No disclosure is ever necessary

Answer: B


SECTION I — SCOPE LIMITATIONS

Q32.

Management tells the CAE, "You may audit inventory, but you are forbidden from examining executive expenses." What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Scope limitation
B) Sampling error
C) Competency deficiency
D) Confidentiality issue

Answer: A

Scope limitations are specifically identified as potential impairments to organizational independence/objectivity.


Q33.

An auditor is denied access to important records necessary for an engagement. What should the auditor recognize?

A) No issue because management owns the records
B) Potential impairment/restriction affecting the audit
C) Only a training issue
D) Automatic fraud

Answer: B


Q34.

Management asks the auditor to remove a significant finding from the final report. What is the BEST response?

A) Remove it because management is senior
B) Evaluate the interference and communicate/report through appropriate governance channels
C) Destroy the working papers
D) Replace the entire audit team

Answer: B


Q35.

Which is NOT an appropriate reason for accepting a management-imposed restriction?

A) Convenience
B) Management seniority
C) Fear of damaging relationships
D) None of the above

Answer: D

Trap: Management authority does not eliminate an impairment.


SECTION J — REPORTING RELATIONSHIPS

Q36.

The CAE reports functionally to the CFO, who is frequently audited by internal audit. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A) Strong independence
B) Potential organizational independence impairment
C) Improved objectivity
D) No issue if the CFO is qualified

Answer: B


Q37.

Which reporting arrangement BEST supports organizational independence?

A) CAE reports functionally to the board/audit committee
B) CAE reports only to the CFO
C) CAE reports only to the controller
D) CAE reports only to the head of operations

Answer: A

The IIA requires the CAE to communicate and interact directly with the board.


Q38.

Administrative reporting of the CAE to the CEO is:

A) Automatically prohibited
B) Generally compatible with functional reporting to the board, subject to the organization's governance arrangements
C) Always superior to audit committee reporting
D) Evidence of actual bias

Answer: B

Exam trap: Do not confuse administrative reporting with functional reporting.


Q39.

The CAE has no direct access to the Audit Committee. Which is the MOST important concern?

A) Organizational independence
B) Accounting classification
C) Sampling risk
D) Auditor competency

Answer: A


SECTION K — PERFORMANCE EVALUATION & FAMILY RELATIONSHIPS

Q40.

The CAE's spouse works as a staff auditor. The CAE alone determines the spouse's performance rating and compensation. What is the BEST safeguard?

A) Do nothing
B) Independent evaluation of the spouse's performance
C) Increase the spouse's compensation
D) Transfer the spouse to finance automatically

Answer: B


Q41.

A staff auditor is assigned to audit an area directly controlled by the auditor's spouse. What should happen?

A) Proceed because marriage has no effect on professional judgment
B) Assess/disclose the conflict and use an appropriate safeguard, potentially reassignment
C) Ask the spouse to write the audit report
D) Eliminate all audit evidence

Answer: B


Q42.

Two auditors are married but work on unrelated audit areas and have no supervisory relationship. Which conclusion is MOST appropriate?

A) Marriage automatically prohibits both from internal audit
B) Marriage automatically proves actual impairment
C) The relationship should be considered under the organization's objectivity/conflict methodology; it does not automatically establish impairment in every assignment
D) One must resign

Answer: C

Tricky: Don't turn every relationship into automatic "FACT impairment."


SECTION L — DISCLOSURE & SAFEGUARDS

Q43.

An auditor discovers a potential impairment before an engagement begins. What is the BEST approach?

A) Hide it because the auditor believes he can remain objective
B) Discuss/disclose the impairment and take appropriate action
C) Wait until the final report
D) Ask the auditee to ignore it

Answer: B

Current Standard 2.2 requires auditors to discuss impairments and take appropriate actions according to applicable methodologies.


Q44.

An auditor discovers an objectivity impairment after completing an engagement, and the impairment may affect the reliability or perceived reliability of the conclusions. What should happen?

A) Ignore it because the engagement is closed
B) Appropriate parties should be informed and appropriate action determined
C) Delete the report
D) Automatically repeat the entire audit

Answer: B

The 2024 framework specifically addresses impairments discovered after an engagement and their effect on reliability/perceived reliability.


Q45.

Which is generally the BEST first principle when an impairment is identified?

A) Hide the impairment
B) Disclose and appropriately manage the impairment
C) Continue regardless
D) Allow the auditee to decide whether the impairment exists

Answer: B


SECTION M — EXTREME TRICK QUESTIONS

Q46.

An auditor says: "There is no actual bias, therefore there is no objectivity problem." Which answer is MOST accurate?

A) Correct
B) Incorrect because perceived impairment can also matter
C) Correct if the audit evidence is sufficient
D) Correct if the CAE agrees

Answer: B

The current Standards explicitly cover actual, potential, and perceived impairments.


Q47.

Which statement is FALSE?

A) An impairment may exist even if unintended
B) Conflicts of interest can undermine confidence in objectivity
C) Every perceived impairment automatically proves actual bias
D) Appropriate safeguards can be used to manage impairments

Answer: C

Major exam trap: Perceived impairment ≠ proof of actual bias.


Q48.

An auditor previously worked in a department but has never personally designed or operated the specific control now being audited. What is the BEST conclusion?

A) Previous employment automatically means actual impairment
B) No assessment is necessary
C) Assess whether the auditor had responsibility for the activity and whether any actual, potential, or perceived impairment exists
D) The audit must automatically be cancelled

Answer: C


Q49.

Which sequence BEST represents the logical approach to an objectivity question?

A) Find the answer → then identify the impairment
B) Identify the relationship/interest → determine actual/potential/perceived impairment → disclose/manage → apply safeguard
C) Ask management → accept management's decision
D) Determine whether fraud exists → then consider objectivity

Answer: B


Q50.

An auditor says:

"I have no personal interest, no family relationship, no financial interest and no prior responsibility. However, senior management has explicitly instructed me not to report a significant finding."

What is the BEST conclusion?

A) No impairment because there is no personal conflict
B) Potential impairment caused by management influence/intimidation
C) Only a competency problem
D) No issue because management owns the organization

Answer: B

Why? Objectivity can be impaired by undue influence from senior management or others in positions of authority.


🔥 10 SUPER-TRICKY EXAM QUESTIONS

Q51.

An auditor had responsibility for an activity 13 months ago. There is no current personal relationship or financial interest. What is the BEST answer?

A) Automatically impaired because prior responsibility is permanent
B) The 12-month presumption no longer applies, but other impairment factors should still be assessed
C) Automatically independent
D) Cannot ever audit the activity

Answer: B


Q52.

Which phrase should immediately alert a CIA candidate to a possible objectivity problem?

A) "Reviewed supporting documentation"
B) "Previously responsible for the activity"
C) "Obtained sufficient evidence"
D) "Prepared audit working papers"

Answer: B


Q53.

An auditor's friend offers the auditor confidential information in exchange for keeping a control deficiency out of the report. The auditor refuses. What is the BEST conclusion?

A) The offer itself should be considered when evaluating objectivity/integrity
B) There is no issue because the auditor refused
C) The auditor must accept the information
D) The deficiency should be deleted

Answer: A


Q54.

Which situation is MOST clearly a self-review concern?

A) Auditor evaluates a control designed by another independent department
B) Auditor evaluates a control that the auditor personally designed and implemented
C) Auditor reviews a public report
D) Auditor attends an audit committee meeting

Answer: B


Q55.

A manager tells an auditor, "You can report the finding, but your annual bonus will be reduced." The auditor changes the finding. What is the MOST important issue?

A) Objectivity impairment due to undue influence/intimidation
B) Sampling methodology
C) Audit documentation format
D) Competency

Answer: A


Q56.

Which statement is MOST dangerous for a CIA candidate to assume?

A) "Perception matters."
B) "Disclosure may be required."
C) "If I personally feel objective, there can never be an impairment."
D) "Safeguards may mitigate an impairment."

Answer: C


Q57.

An auditor's previous advisory work involved a process, but another auditor—not the original advisor—is assigned to provide assurance. What is the BEST reason this arrangement may reduce risk?

A) It eliminates all organizational risks
B) It helps manage individual objectivity/self-review concerns
C) It eliminates the need for evidence
D) It makes management responsible for the audit

Answer: B


Q58.

Which combination is MOST likely to require immediate attention?

A) Long friendship + audited area
B) Training attendance + audit assignment
C) New audit software + audit assignment
D) Professional membership + audit assignment

Answer: A


Q59.

An auditor says:

"Management is restricting my scope, but the restricted area is not important."

What should the auditor do?

A) Automatically accept the restriction
B) Evaluate and appropriately disclose/manage the scope limitation based on its nature and impact
C) Ignore it
D) Remove the restricted area from the audit plan without documentation

Answer: B


Q60.

Which statement BEST summarizes the objectivity principle?

A) "I must actually be unbiased."
B) "Others must believe I am unbiased."
C) "I must maintain impartial judgment and recognize/manage actual, potential and perceived impairments."
D) "Management decides whether I am objective."

Answer: C


Feel free 🆓 to discuss with me if you have any questions ‼️ Call or Text on 9773464206

Regards from Prof Mahaley Head Gmsisuccess Mumbai 

US CMA Part 2 — Strategic Financial Management 100 MCQ Practice Set




US CMA Part 2 — Strategic Financial Management

100 MCQ Practice Set 


Important 2026 format update: For the September/October 2026 window onward, case-based questions become the standard format for English CMA exams in most regions, replacing essays. The underlying tested content does not change.


SECTION A — FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

Q1.

Current assets are $600,000 and current liabilities are $300,000. What is the current ratio?

A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 2.0
D) 3.0

Answer:

Q2.

Current assets are $800,000, inventory is $300,000, and current liabilities are $250,000. What is the quick ratio?

A) 1.5
B) 2.0
C) 2.5
D) 3.2

Answer


Q3.

Sales are $1,000,000 and average accounts receivable are $125,000. What is the receivables turnover?

A) 4 times
B) 6 times
C) 8 times
D) 10 times

Answer: 

Q4.

COGS is $900,000 and average inventory is $150,000. Inventory turnover is:

A) 4 times
B) 5 times
C) 6 times
D) 8 times

Answer: 



Q5.

Net income is $100,000 and average total assets are $500,000. ROA equals:

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

Answer: 


Q6.

Net income is $120,000 and average equity is $600,000. ROE equals:

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

Answer: 


Q7.

A company has sales of $2 million and COGS of $1.2 million. Its gross profit margin is:

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 60%

Answer 


Q8.

A company has net income of $90,000 and sales of $900,000. What is its net profit margin?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

Answer: 


Q9.

Market price per share is $72 and EPS is $4. What is the P/E ratio?

A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 20

Answer: 


Q10.

A company has sales of $1,000,000, net income of $80,000, and average assets of $400,000. What is its ROA?

A) 8%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

Answer: 



Q11.

In a common-size income statement, each item is generally expressed as a percentage of:

A) Total assets
B) Total equity
C) Sales
D) Net income

Answer: 


Q12.

If inventory turnover increases substantially while sales remain constant, the most likely interpretation is:

A) Inventory is moving more slowly
B) Inventory is being used/sold more efficiently
C) Gross margin must decrease
D) Current liabilities must increase

Answer

Q13.

A company has a debt-to-equity ratio of 2.0. This means:

A) Debt equals equity
B) Debt is twice equity
C) Equity is twice debt
D) Assets equal twice debt

Answer:


Q14.

If ROE is 18% and the dividend payout ratio is 25%, the sustainable growth rate is:

A) 4.5%
B) 13.5%
C) 18%
D) 24%

Answer:


Q15.

During a period of rising inventory costs, FIFO generally produces:

A) Lower ending inventory and lower income
B) Higher ending inventory and higher income
C) Higher COGS and higher income
D) No effect on income

Answer:


SECTION B — CORPORATE FINANCE

Q16.

The risk-free rate is 5%, beta is 1.2, and market return is 11%. CAPM required return is:

A) 10.2%
B) 11.0%
C) 12.2%
D) 13.2%

Answer


Q17.

A beta of 1.8 indicates that the stock has:

A) No systematic risk
B) Less systematic risk than the market
C) Approximately 80% more systematic sensitivity than the market
D) No business risk

Answer


Q18.

If the risk-free rate is 4% and market return is 9%, the market risk premium is:

A) 4%
B) 5%
C) 9%
D) 13%

Ans


Q19.

Pre-tax cost of debt is 10% and tax rate is 30%. After-tax cost of debt is:

A) 3%
B) 7%
C) 10%
D) 13%

Answer:


Q20.

Debt represents 40% of capital and has an after-tax cost of 6%. Equity represents 60% and costs 12%. WACC is:

A) 7.2%
B) 8.4%
C) 9.6%
D) 10.8%

Answer: 


Q21.

A company issues new shares directly to investors. This transaction occurs in the:

A) Secondary market
B) Primary market
C) Foreign exchange market
D) Derivatives market

Answer:


Q22.

Which market primarily involves previously issued securities being traded among investors?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) IPO
D) Capital budgeting

Ans


Q23.

A company has EBIT of $300,000 and interest expense of $100,000. DFL is:

A) 1.0
B) 1.5
C) 2.0
D) 3.0

Answer: 


Q24.

DOL is 2 and DFL is 1.5. Degree of total leverage equals:

A) 1.33
B) 2.5
C) 3.0
D) 3.5

Answer: 


Q25.

If DTL is 4 and sales increase by 8%, earnings available to shareholders will approximately change by:

A) 2%
B) 8%
C) 16%
D) 32%

Answer: 


Q26.

A stock just paid a dividend of $3.00. Growth is expected at 4%, and required return is 10%. Current price is:

A) $30.00
B) $45.00
C) $52.00
D) $52.00?

Answer: 


Q27.

If a company's beta decreases from 1.5 to 0.9, holding other CAPM factors constant, its required return will generally:

A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Remain exactly the same
D) Become zero

Answer: 


Q28.

Which source of financing normally represents an ownership claim?

A) Bonds
B) Bank loan
C) Common stock
D) Accounts payable

Answer: 

Q29.

Financial leverage primarily arises from:

A) Fixed operating costs
B) Fixed financing costs
C) Variable manufacturing costs
D) Inventory turnover

Answer:

Q30.

Operating leverage primarily arises because of:

A) Fixed operating costs
B) Interest expense
C) Dividends
D) Taxes only

Answer:


SECTION C — BUSINESS DECISION ANALYSIS

Q31.

A company receives a special order for 10,000 units at $28. Variable cost is $20 and there is idle capacity. Incremental profit is:

A) $20,000
B) $50,000
C) $80,000
D) $280,000

Answer:

.


Q32.

A special order price is $30. Variable cost is $22 and avoidable fixed costs are $20,000 for 5,000 units. Incremental profit is:

A) $20,000
B) $30,000
C) $40,000
D) $50,000

Answer:


Q33.

Which cost is generally irrelevant when deciding whether to accept a special order?

A) Incremental variable cost
B) Incremental fixed cost
C) Opportunity cost
D) Existing unavoidable fixed cost

Answer: 


Q34.

A company must choose between making a component for $14 variable cost plus $3 avoidable fixed cost or buying it for $18. What should it do?

A) Make, because relevant cost is $17
B) Buy, because relevant cost is $18
C) Make, because fixed costs never matter
D) Buy, because variable costs are irrelevant

Answer: 

Q35.

If a scarce machine-hour can generate $12 contribution from Product A and $9 from Product B, which product should receive the scarce resource?

A) Product A
B) Product B
C) Both equally
D) Neither

Answer:



Q36.

A product sells for $50 and has variable cost of $30. Contribution margin ratio is:

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 60%

Answer:



Q37.

Fixed costs are $150,000 and contribution margin per unit is $25. Break-even volume is:

A) 4,000
B) 5,000
C) 6,000
D) 7,500

Answer:

.


Q38.

Selling price is $80, variable cost is $50, and fixed costs are $240,000. Break-even sales dollars are:

A) $480,000
B) $640,000
C) $800,000
D) $960,000

Answer: 

Q39.

Actual sales are $900,000 and break-even sales are $720,000. Margin of safety percentage is:

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 80%

Answer: 


Q40.

Fixed costs are $100,000, desired profit is $50,000, and CM ratio is 30%. Required sales are:

A) $333,333
B) $400,000
C) $500,000
D) $600,000

Answer:


Q41.

Product A has CM of $10 and Product B has CM of $20. If the expected sales mix is 3A:2B, weighted-average CM per unit is:

A) $12
B) $14
C) $16
D) $18

Answer:.


Q42.

A company has contribution margin of $400,000 and EBIT of $100,000. DOL is:

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Ans


Q43.

If DOL = 4 and sales decline by 5%, EBIT will approximately:

A) Increase 20%
B) Decrease 5%
C) Decrease 20%
D) Decrease 25%

Ans


Q44.

A product sells for $20 and variable cost is $12. Fixed costs are $80,000. How many units are needed for a $40,000 target profit?

A) 5,000
B) 10,000
C) 15,000
D) 20,000

Ans


Q45.

A joint product sells for $15 at split-off and $22 after further processing. Additional processing cost is $5. The incremental benefit of further processing is:

A) $2
B) $5
C) $7
D) $12

Answer: 

Q46.

When deciding whether to sell a joint product at split-off or process it further, joint costs incurred before split-off are generally:

A) Relevant
B) Avoidable
C) Sunk/irrelevant
D) Opportunity costs

Ans


Q47.

A segment generates $100,000 contribution margin and has $70,000 avoidable fixed costs. If dropped, the company will:

A) Gain $30,000
B) Lose $30,000
C) Break even
D) Gain $70,000

Answer: 

Q48.

Opportunity cost is best described as:

A) Historical cost
B) Cost that never changes
C) Benefit sacrificed by choosing one alternative over another
D) Depreciation expense

Answer: 

Q49.

A company has idle capacity and receives a special order. Which factor becomes especially important if accepting the order prevents another profitable use of capacity?

A) Sunk cost
B) Opportunity cost
C) Historical cost
D) Book value

Answer: 


Q50.

Which decision should generally be based on incremental cash flows rather than allocated accounting costs?

A) Special-order decision
B) Make-or-buy decision
C) Product discontinuation decision
D) All of the above

Answer: 


SECTION D — ENTERPRISE RISK MANAGEMENT

Q51.

A company refuses to enter a market because the associated risk exceeds its acceptable level. This is:

A) Risk acceptance
B) Risk avoidance
C) Risk sharing
D) Risk retention

Answer: 


Q52.

Purchasing insurance is primarily an example of:

A) Avoidance
B) Transfer/share
C) Acceptance
D) Exploitation

Answer:


Q53.

Installing additional controls to reduce the probability of fraud represents:

A) Risk reduction
B) Risk acceptance
C) Risk avoidance
D) Risk elimination in every case

Answer: 

Q54.

Risk appetite refers to:

A) Every risk an organization faces
B) The amount/type of risk an organization is willing to pursue
C) The amount of cash held
D) The probability of fraud

Answer: 

Q55.

Risk tolerance generally represents:

A) The complete elimination of risk
B) Acceptable variation around objectives
C) Market capitalization
D) Debt capacity only

Answer: 



Q56.

Failure of an employee to follow an established processing procedure is primarily:

A) Strategic risk
B) Operational risk
C) Market risk
D) Currency risk

Answer:


Q57.

A sudden change in foreign exchange rates primarily creates:

A) Currency/market risk
B) Operational risk
C) Compliance risk only
D) Reputation risk only

Answer: 

Q58.

Regulatory penalties resulting from failure to comply with laws represent:

A) Compliance risk
B) Liquidity risk
C) Inventory risk
D) Production risk

Answer: 


Q59.

A risk register is primarily used to:

A) Calculate EPS
B) Identify and track risks and responses
C) Calculate depreciation
D) Prepare tax returns

Answer: 

Q60.

Capital Adequacy Ratio is calculated as:

A) Assets ÷ Equity
B) Regulatory Capital ÷ Risk-Weighted Assets
C) Debt ÷ Sales
D) Equity ÷ Net Income

Answer: 


Q61.

Regulatory capital is $120 million and RWA is $1.2 billion. CAR equals:

A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 10%
D) 12%

Answer: 


Q62.

The fraud triangle consists of:

A) Pressure, opportunity and rationalization
B) Fraud, risk and control
C) Incentive, liquidity and leverage
D) Opportunity, control and monitoring

Answer:


Q63.

Which factor represents a financial or personal motivation that may encourage fraud?

A) Opportunity
B) Pressure/incentive
C) Rationalization
D) Monitoring

Answer:


Q64.

An employee believes, "I am only borrowing the money and will return it." This is an example of:

A) Opportunity
B) Pressure
C) Rationalization
D) Control activity

Answer:


Q65.

Weak segregation of duties primarily increases:

A) Opportunity for fraud
B) Market capitalization
C) Gross margin
D) Dividend yield

Answer: 


SECTION E — CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONS

Q66.

Initial investment is $200,000 and annual cash inflow is $50,000. Payback period is:

A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years

Answ


Q67.

Which capital-budgeting method explicitly incorporates the time value of money?

A) Basic payback
B) Accounting rate of return
C) NPV
D) Simple break-even

Answer: 


Q68.

A project has an NPV of +$50,000. Assuming the cash-flow estimates and discount rate are appropriate, this means:

A) The project earns less than the required return
B) The project adds value relative to the required return
C) The project has no cash inflows
D) IRR must be zero

Ans


Q69.

If NPV = $0, the project:

A) Earns exactly the required return
B) Has no cash flows
C) Must be rejected
D) Has an IRR of zero

Answer:

Q70.

A project has IRR of 14% and required return of 10%. Under the conventional accept/reject rule, the project should be:

A) Accepted
B) Rejected
C) Deferred automatically
D) Accepted only if NPV is negative

Answer:


Q71.

A project costs $300,000 and generates $100,000 annually for three years. Ignoring time value, payback is:

A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years

Ans


Q72.

A major limitation of basic payback is that it:

A) Uses discounted cash flows
B) Ignores cash flows after payback
C) Always produces negative NPV
D) Measures shareholder value directly

Answer: 


Q73.

Sensitivity analysis generally:

A) Changes many variables simultaneously
B) Changes one key variable while holding others constant
C) Eliminates uncertainty
D) Calculates only accounting profit

Ans


Q74.

Scenario analysis generally evaluates:

A) Only one variable
B) Complete combinations of assumptions under different scenarios
C) Historical costs only
D) Depreciation only

Answer: 


Q75.

Monte Carlo simulation is useful because it:

A) Eliminates all risk
B) Models numerous possible outcomes using probability distributions
C) Ignores uncertainty
D) Uses only historical costs

Answer:


Q76.

Outcomes are $50,000 with probability 20% and $100,000 with probability 80%. Expected value equals:

A) $60,000
B) $70,000
C) $80,000
D) $90,000

Answer:


Q77.

Which cash flow should generally be included in capital budgeting?

A) Sunk cost
B) Opportunity cost
C) Historical cost
D) Past research expense

Answer:


Q78.

Which is generally excluded from a capital-budgeting analysis?

A) Incremental operating cash flow
B) After-tax salvage value
C) Sunk cost
D) Working-capital investment

Answer:

Q79.

Working capital required at the beginning of a project is generally:

A) Ignored
B) Included as an investment cash outflow
C) Always treated as revenue
D) Added to depreciation

Answer: .


Q80.

At the end of a project, recovered working capital is generally treated as:

A) Cash inflow
B) Operating expense
C) Sunk cost
D) Depreciation

Answer:


SECTION F — PROFESSIONAL ETHICS

IMA's current ethics statement identifies four standards: Competence, Confidentiality, Integrity and Credibility. It also emphasizes honesty, fairness, objectivity and responsibility.

Q81.

Which IMA standard requires members to maintain professional knowledge and skills?

A) Competence
B) Confidentiality
C) Integrity
D) Credibility

Answer: 


Q82.

Which standard requires confidential information to be protected except when disclosure is authorized or legally required?

A) Competence
B) Confidentiality
C) Integrity
D) Credibility

Answer:

Q83.

"Communicate information fairly and objectively" belongs to:

A) Competence
B) Confidentiality
C) Integrity
D) Credibility

Answer:


Q84.

A CMA deliberately hides a conflict of interest. Which standard is most directly involved?

A) Competence
B) Confidentiality
C) Integrity
D) Credibility

Answer:


Q85.

Which is NOT one of the four IMA standards?

A) Competence
B) Confidentiality
C) Independence
D) Credibility

Answer:


Q86.

A CMA provides inaccurate information because management wants a favorable result. This primarily violates:

A) Competence and/or Credibility
B) Confidentiality only
C) Inventory policy
D) Capital structure policy

Answer:


Q87.

A CMA is asked to manipulate earnings. The first appropriate action is generally to:

A) Contact the media
B) Follow organizational policies and discuss the issue with the appropriate person
C) Immediately resign
D) Post the issue online

Answer:


Q88.

If an immediate supervisor is involved in the unethical conduct, the CMA should generally:

A) Stop all work immediately
B) Escalate the matter to the next appropriate level
C) Destroy the records
D) Ignore the matter

Answer: 


Q89.

Using confidential company information for personal financial gain violates:

A) Competence
B) Confidentiality
C) Credibility only
D) Cost behavior

Ans

Q90.

Which ethical principle is NOT one of IMA's overarching principles?

A) Honesty
B) Fairness
C) Objectivity
D) Profit maximization

Answer:


SECTION G — INTEGRATED / CBQ-STYLE MCQs

Q91.

A company receives an order for 8,000 units at $24 each. Variable cost is $15. The order requires $20,000 additional fixed cost. There is idle capacity. Net benefit is:

A) $52,000
B) $72,000
C) $92,000
D) $120,000

Answer:.


Q92.

A project requires $400,000 and produces annual cash flows of $120,000 for five years. PV annuity factor is 3.791. At the required return, NPV equals:

A) $54,920
B) $120,000
C) $454,920
D) $854,920

Answer:


Q93.

A company has fixed costs of $180,000, selling price of $60 and variable cost of $36. What is the break-even volume?

A) 5,000
B) 7,500
C) 8,000
D) 10,000

Answer: 

Q94.

Using Q93, if actual sales are 10,000 units, the margin of safety is:

A) 1,500 units
B) 2,000 units
C) 2,500 units
D) 3,500 units

Answe


Q95.

A company has EBIT of $500,000, interest of $100,000 and sales increase by 10%. DFL is:

A) 1.00
B) 1.25
C) 1.50
D) 2.00

Ans


Q96.

If DOL is 3 and DFL is 1.25, DTL equals:

A) 2.40
B) 3.00
C) 3.75
D) 4.25

Answer


Q97.

If DTL = 3.75 and sales increase by 10%, earnings available to shareholders will approximately increase by:

A) 3.75%
B) 10%
C) 27.5%
D) 37.5%

Answer: 


Q98.

A company is considering abandoning a project that has a current salvage value of $80,000. The ability to exit the project represents:

A) Option to expand
B) Option to delay
C) Option to abandon
D) Option to switch

Answer: 


Q99.

A company has two projects:

  • Project A: NPV = $80,000
  • Project B: NPV = $50,000

If the projects are mutually exclusive and all other relevant assumptions are satisfied, the NPV method indicates that:

A) Project A has greater calculated value contribution
B) Project B has greater calculated value contribution
C) Both have zero NPV
D) Neither can be evaluated using NPV

Answer: 

Q100.

A CMA faces an ethical dilemma involving questionable financial reporting. Which sequence is most consistent with IMA ethical-resolution guidance?

A) Media → social media → resignation
B) Ignore → wait → resign
C) Follow organizational policies → discuss with appropriate personnel → escalate when necessary
D) Immediately contact competitors

Answer: 


QUICK ANSWER KEY

Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans
1 C 26 C 51 B 76 D
2 B 27 B 52 B 77 B
3 C 28 C 53 A 78 C
4 C 29 B 54 B 79 B
5 C 30 A 55 B 80 A
6 C 31 C 56 B 81 A
7 C 32 A 57 A 82 B
8 B 33 D 58 A 83 D
9 C 34 A 59 B 84 C
10 C 35 A 60 B 85 C
11 C 36 C 61 C 86 A
12 B 37 C 62 A 87 B
13 B 38 B 63 B 88 B
14 B 39 B 64 C 89 B
15 B 40 C 65 A 90 D
16 C 41 B 66 C 91 A
17 C 42 C 67 C 92 A
18 B 43 C 68 B 93 B
19 B 44 C 69 A 94 C
20 C 45 A 70 A 95 B
21 B 46 C 71 B 96 C
22 B 47 B 72 B 97 D
23 B 48 C 73 B 98 C
24 C 49 B 74 B 99 A
25 C 50 D 75 B 100 C

Key CMA Part 2 habit

Before calculating, ask: "What is the decision? Which information will change because of this decision?"

This is particularly important for special orders, make-or-buy, segment elimination, further processing, scarce resources and capital budgeting.

GMSiSuccess CMA Champions — practice the calculation, but more importantly, practice the interpretation. 🏆

— Prof. Mahaley, Head – GMSiSuccess Mumbai