Friday, February 6, 2026

Corporate finance MCQ



50 MCQs – Corporate Finance (Risk & Return) | CMA Part 2

1. Shareholders’ Wealth Maximization

  1. The primary financial objective of a firm under modern finance theory is to: A. Maximize accounting profit
    B. Maximize EPS
    C. Maximize shareholders’ wealth
    D. Minimize cost
    ✅ Answer: C

2. Market Capitalization

  1. Market capitalization is calculated as: A. Book value of equity
    B. Shares outstanding × Market price per share
    C. Net income × P/E ratio
    D. Total assets – liabilities
    ✅ Answer: B

3. Holding Period Return (HPR)

  1. Holding period return for a stock includes: A. Dividend only
    B. Capital gain only
    C. Dividend + Capital gain
    D. Interest income
    ✅ Answer: C

4. HPR Formula

  1. HPR for common stock is best defined as: A. (Ending price − Beginning price) ÷ Beginning price
    B. (Dividend + Price change) ÷ Beginning price
    C. Dividend ÷ Market price
    D. Price change ÷ Ending price
    ✅ Answer: B

5. Expected Return

  1. Expected return is calculated using: A. Arithmetic mean of past returns
    B. Weighted average of possible returns
    C. Geometric mean
    D. Median return
    ✅ Answer: B

6. Risk Measurement

  1. Total risk of a security is most commonly measured by: A. Beta
    B. Variance
    C. Standard deviation
    D. Covariance
    ✅ Answer: C

7. Coefficient of Variation

  1. Coefficient of variation (CV) measures: A. Absolute risk
    B. Systematic risk
    C. Risk per unit of return
    D. Market risk
    ✅ Answer: C

8. Risk Comparison

  1. Between two investments, the one with the higher coefficient of variation is: A. Less risky
    B. Risk-free
    C. More risky
    D. Better investment
    ✅ Answer: C

9. Risk-Free Asset

  1. In CAPM, the risk-free rate is generally represented by: A. Corporate bonds
    B. Equity shares
    C. Treasury bills
    D. Treasury bonds
    ✅ Answer: C

10. Default Risk

  1. Default risk refers to: A. Market price fluctuation
    B. Interest rate change
    C. Failure to meet contractual payments
    D. Inflation risk
    ✅ Answer: C

11. Financial Risk

  1. Financial risk primarily arises due to: A. Business operations
    B. Use of debt financing
    C. Market volatility
    D. Inflation
    ✅ Answer: B

12. Business Risk

  1. Business risk is associated with: A. Capital structure
    B. Operating leverage
    C. Interest rates
    D. Exchange rates
    ✅ Answer: B

13. Risk Attitudes

  1. A risk-averse investor prefers: A. Higher risk for same return
    B. Lower risk for same return
    C. Riskier investments
    D. Gambling investments
    ✅ Answer: B

14. Risk-Seeking Investor

  1. A risk-seeking investor: A. Avoids uncertainty
    B. Requires high certainty equivalent
    C. Accepts more risk for same return
    D. Invests only in T-bills
    ✅ Answer: C

15. Risk-Indifferent Investor

  1. Risk-indifferent investors are concerned only with: A. Risk
    B. Return
    C. Variance
    D. Beta
    ✅ Answer: B

16. Certainty Equivalent

  1. Certainty equivalent represents: A. Risk premium
    B. Guaranteed return equivalent to risky return
    C. Expected return
    D. Market return
    ✅ Answer: B

17. Portfolio Return

  1. Portfolio expected return is: A. Average of individual returns
    B. Weighted average of individual returns
    C. Product of returns
    D. Highest individual return
    ✅ Answer: B

18. Portfolio Risk

  1. Portfolio risk depends on: A. Individual security risk only
    B. Correlation among securities
    C. Market return
    D. Risk-free rate
    ✅ Answer: B

19. Covariance

  1. Covariance measures: A. Individual risk
    B. Degree to which two assets move together
    C. Market risk
    D. Beta
    ✅ Answer: B

20. Correlation Coefficient

  1. Correlation coefficient ranges between: A. 0 to 1
    B. –1 to +1
    C. –∞ to +∞
    D. 0 to +∞
    ✅ Answer: B

21. Diversification

  1. Diversification reduces: A. Systematic risk
    B. Unsystematic risk
    C. Market risk
    D. Inflation risk
    ✅ Answer: B

22. Fully Diversified Portfolio

  1. In a well-diversified portfolio, remaining risk is: A. Total risk
    B. Unsystematic risk
    C. Systematic risk
    D. Zero risk
    ✅ Answer: C

23. Systematic Risk

  1. Systematic risk is also known as: A. Diversifiable risk
    B. Firm-specific risk
    C. Market risk
    D. Operational risk
    ✅ Answer: C

24. Unsystematic Risk

  1. Unsystematic risk can be reduced by: A. Hedging
    B. Diversification
    C. CAPM
    D. Inflation
    ✅ Answer: B

25. Beta

  1. Beta measures: A. Total risk
    B. Firm-specific risk
    C. Market risk sensitivity
    D. Interest rate risk
    ✅ Answer: C

26. Beta = 1

  1. A stock with beta = 1 has: A. No risk
    B. Less risk than market
    C. Same risk as market
    D. Higher risk than market
    ✅ Answer: C

27. Security Market Line (SML)

  1. SML represents the relationship between: A. Risk and price
    B. Expected return and beta
    C. Return and variance
    D. Risk-free rate and inflation
    ✅ Answer: B

28. CAPM Formula

  1. CAPM states: A. E(Ri)=Rf + β(Rm − Rf)
    B. E(Ri)=Rm + β(Rf − Rm)
    C. E(Ri)=Rf − β(Rm)
    D. E(Ri)=Rm − β
    ✅ Answer: A

29. Market Portfolio

  1. The market portfolio consists of: A. Only stocks
    B. Only bonds
    C. All risky assets
    D. Risk-free assets
    ✅ Answer: C

30. T-Bills

  1. Treasury bills are: A. Long-term
    B. Risk-free
    C. Corporate securities
    D. Inflation indexed
    ✅ Answer: B

31. T-Bonds

  1. Treasury bonds differ from T-bills mainly in: A. Credit risk
    B. Maturity
    C. Liquidity
    D. Default risk
    ✅ Answer: B

32. Private Company Bonds

  1. Bonds of private companies generally have: A. No risk
    B. Lower return
    C. Higher default risk
    D. Risk-free status
    ✅ Answer: C

33. Equity vs Debt Risk

  1. Compared to bonds, equity shares are: A. Less risky
    B. Risk-free
    C. More risky
    D. Fixed return
    ✅ Answer: C

34. Portfolio Standard Deviation

  1. Portfolio standard deviation depends on: A. Individual SD only
    B. Covariance & correlation
    C. Market return
    D. Risk-free rate
    ✅ Answer: B

35. Negative Correlation

  1. Perfect negative correlation helps: A. Increase risk
    B. Eliminate risk
    C. Increase return
    D. Increase beta
    ✅ Answer: B

36. Market Risk Premium

  1. Market risk premium equals: A. Rm − Rf
    B. Rf − Rm
    C. Ri − Rf
    D. β × Rm
    ✅ Answer: A

37. Alpha

  1. Alpha represents: A. Total risk
    B. Excess return over expected
    C. Market risk
    D. Correlation
    ✅ Answer: B

38. CAPM Assumption

  1. CAPM assumes: A. Multiple risk factors
    B. Single risk factor (market)
    C. Arbitrage pricing
    D. Behavioral bias
    ✅ Answer: B

39. APT

  1. Arbitrage Pricing Theory assumes: A. One risk factor
    B. Multiple macroeconomic factors
    C. Risk-free portfolio
    D. Perfect certainty
    ✅ Answer: B

40. Advantage of APT

  1. APT is preferred over CAPM because: A. It is simpler
    B. It allows multiple risk factors
    C. No arbitrage assumption
    D. Uses beta only
    ✅ Answer: B

41. Fama-French Model

  1. Fama-French Three Factor Model includes: A. Market, size, value
    B. Market, inflation, GDP
    C. Interest rate, beta, size
    D. Beta only
    ✅ Answer: A

42. SMB Factor

  1. SMB in Fama-French refers to: A. Small minus big
    B. Systematic market beta
    C. Stock market bonds
    D. Small market beta
    ✅ Answer: A

43. HML Factor

  1. HML represents: A. High minus low book-to-market
    B. High market leverage
    C. High market liquidity
    D. High momentum loss
    ✅ Answer: A

44. Efficient Portfolio

  1. An efficient portfolio: A. Has minimum risk for given return
    B. Has maximum risk
    C. Has no risk
    D. Has lowest return
    ✅ Answer: A

45. Efficient Frontier

  1. Efficient frontier represents: A. All possible portfolios
    B. Risk-free portfolios
    C. Best risk-return combinations
    D. Market portfolio
    ✅ Answer: C

46. Investor Choice

  1. Rational investors prefer portfolios on: A. Capital market line
    B. Security market line
    C. Efficient frontier
    D. Random walk
    ✅ Answer: C

47. Capital Market Line

  1. CML relates: A. Return and beta
    B. Return and total risk
    C. Risk-free rate and beta
    D. Market risk and inflation
    ✅ Answer: B

48. Zero Beta Asset

  1. An asset with beta zero: A. Moves opposite to market
    B. Has no expected return
    C. Has risk-free return
    D. Is market portfolio
    ✅ Answer: C

49. Market Risk Cannot Be

  1. Market risk cannot be eliminated through: A. Hedging
    B. Diversification
    C. Portfolio formation
    D. Asset allocation
    ✅ Answer: B

50. CMA Exam Focus

  1. CMA Part 2 places maximum emphasis on: A. Memorization
    B. Conceptual + application-based questions
    C. Only theory
    D. Only calculations
    ✅ Answer: B

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Perfect 👍
Below are CMA Part 2–style NUMERICAL PROBLEMS on Risk & Return, with step-by-step solutions (exactly how CMA expects).


NUMERICAL PROBLEMS – CORPORATE FINANCE (RISK & RETURN)

(CMA Part 2 Exam Focus)


1️⃣ Holding Period Return (HPR) – Common Stock

Problem:
A share was purchased for ₹120. During the year, a dividend of ₹6 was received and the share was sold for ₹138.
Calculate the Holding Period Return (HPR).

Solution:


HPR = \frac{Dividend + (Selling Price - Purchase Price)}{Purchase Price}

= \frac{6 + (138 - 120)}{120}
= \frac{24}{120}
= 0.20 = \mathbf{20\%}

Answer: 20%


2️⃣ Expected Return (Probability Method)

Problem:
An investment has the following returns:

Return (%) Probability
10% 0.3
15% 0.4
20% 0.3

Calculate the expected return.

Solution:


E(R) = \sum (R \times P)

= (10 \times 0.3) + (15 \times 0.4) + (20 \times 0.3)

= 3 + 6 + 6 = \mathbf{15\%}

Answer: 15%


3️⃣ Standard Deviation of Returns

Using Problem 2 data, calculate standard deviation.

Step 1: Mean Return


\bar R = 15\%

Step 2: Variance


\sigma^2 = \sum P(R - \bar R)^2

= 0.3(10-15)^2 + 0.4(15-15)^2 + 0.3(20-15)^2

= 0.3(25) + 0 + 0.3(25)
= 15

Step 3: Standard Deviation


\sigma = \sqrt{15} = \mathbf{3.87\%}

Answer: 3.87%


4️⃣ Coefficient of Variation (CV)

Problem:
Expected return = 12%
Standard deviation = 6%

Solution:


CV = \frac{\sigma}{E(R)} = \frac{6}{12} = \mathbf{0.50}

Interpretation:
Lower CV = lower risk per unit of return


5️⃣ Comparing Two Investments Using CV

Investment Return SD
A 10% 4%
B 15% 9%

CV Calculation


CV_A = \frac{4}{10} = 0.40

CV_B = \frac{9}{15} = 0.60 

Investment A is less risky


6️⃣ Portfolio Expected Return

Problem:
A portfolio consists of:

Asset Weight Return
X 60% 12%
Y 40% 8%

Solution:


E(R_p) = (0.6 \times 12) + (0.4 \times 8)

= 7.2 + 3.2 = \mathbf{10.4\%}

7️⃣ Portfolio Standard Deviation (2 Assets)

Problem:


\sigma_X = 10\%,\ \sigma_Y = 6\%

w_X = 0.5,\ w_Y = 0.5 
Correlation (ρ) = 0.3

Formula:


\sigma_p = \sqrt{w_X^2\sigma_X^2 + w_Y^2\sigma_Y^2 + 2w_Xw_Y\sigma_X\sigma_Y\rho}

Solution:


= \sqrt{(0.5^2)(10^2) + (0.5^2)(6^2) + 2(0.5)(0.5)(10)(6)(0.3)}

= \sqrt{25 + 9 + 9} = \sqrt{43}
= \mathbf{6.56\%}

8️⃣ CAPM – Required Rate of Return

Problem:
Risk-free rate = 5%
Market return = 13%
Beta = 1.2

Solution (CAPM):


E(R) = R_f + \beta (R_m - R_f)

= 5 + 1.2(13 - 5)
= 5 + 9.6 = \mathbf{14.6\%}

9️⃣ Security Over/Under Valued (SML Test)

Problem:
Required return (CAPM) = 12%
Expected return = 14%

Interpretation:

Expected > Required ⇒ Undervalued Security

Buy recommendation


🔟 Certainty Equivalent Approach

Problem:
A risky project has expected return of 18%.
Certainty equivalent (CE) return is 14%.

Risk Premium:


Risk\ Premium = 18 - 14 = \mathbf{4\%}

🔥 CMA EXAM TIP

  • CV → comparison
  • SD → absolute risk
  • Beta → market risk
  • Diversification → removes unsystematic risk only
  • CAPM & portfolio numericals = high scoring
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Thursday, February 5, 2026

Objectivity, Integrity and Independence of Internal Auditor


Objectivity, Integrity, and Independence of Internal Auditors

(As per CIA Part 1IIA Standards & Code of Ethics)

 

Introduction

Objectivity, integrity, and independence are foundational ethical principles governing the professional conduct of internal auditors. These principles are embedded in the IIA Code of Ethics and the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). They ensure that internal auditors perform their work with unbiased judgment, honesty, and freedom from undue influence, thereby enhancing the credibility and reliability of assurance and consulting services.

Failure to uphold these principles can undermine audit quality, impair stakeholder confidence, and expose the organization to governance, risk, and compliance failures.

 

1. Integrity of Internal Auditors

Meaning and Concept

Integrity refers to the honesty, diligence, and responsibility with which internal auditors carry out their professional duties. Integrity establishes trust and provides the basis for reliance on the auditor’s judgment.

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, internal auditors shall:

Perform their work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility

Observe the law and make required disclosures

Not knowingly engage in illegal activities

Respect and contribute to legitimate and ethical objectives of the organization

Key Characteristics of Integrity

Truthful reporting without concealment of facts

Ethical courage to report unfavorable findings

Avoidance of misleading statements

Compliance with laws, regulations, and professional standards

Importance of Integrity

Integrity is the moral backbone of internal auditing. Even if an auditor is technically competent and independent, lack of integrity can result in:

Manipulated audit reports

Suppressed findings

Misrepresentation of risks

Loss of credibility of the internal audit function

CIA Exam Focus

Integrity is non-negotiable

It applies at all times, even when independence is not impaired

An auditor cannot justify unethical conduct by management pressure

 

2. Objectivity of Internal Auditors

Meaning and Concept

Objectivity refers to an unbiased mental attitude that allows internal auditors to perform engagements without compromising professional judgment.

As per Standard 1120 – Objectivity:

Internal auditors must have an impartial, unbiased attitude and avoid conflicts of interest.

Objectivity vs Independence

Objectivity is a state of mind

It applies to individual auditors

Independence is more about organizational positioning

Threats to Objectivity

Personal relationships with auditees

Previous operational responsibility

Financial interests

Self-review threats

Familiarity threats

Safeguards to Maintain Objectivity

Disclosure of conflicts of interest

Rotation of audit assignments

Independent review of work

Exclusion from auditing areas of prior responsibility

CIA Exam Focus

Objectivity can be impaired even without actual bias

Perceived bias is enough to impair objectivity

Disclosure alone may not always be sufficient

 

3. Independence of Internal Auditors

Meaning and Concept

Independence refers to the freedom from conditions that threaten the ability of the internal audit activity to carry out responsibilities in an unbiased manner.

As per Standard 1110 – Organizational Independence:

The Chief Audit Executive (CAE) must report functionally to the board

The internal audit activity must be free from interference in: 

o Scope of work

o Performance of work

o Communication of results

Types of Independence

1. Organizational Independence 

o Functional reporting to audit committee / board

2. Individual Independence 

o Auditors should not audit areas where they had recent operational responsibility

Impairment of Independence

Independence is impaired when:

Management restricts audit scope

CAE reports only to management

Auditors perform operational roles and later audit the same area

Disclosure Requirement

If independence is impaired:

The impairment must be disclosed

Disclosure should be made to appropriate parties

CIA Exam Focus

Independence is primarily a structural concept

Consulting services do not automatically impair independence

Performing management responsibilities does impair independence

 

Relationship Between Integrity, Objectivity, and Independence

Aspect Integrity Objectivity Independence

Nature Ethical principle Mental attitude Structural condition

Applies to Individual auditor Individual auditor Audit function & auditor

Can be perceived No Yes Yes

Disclosure cures issue No Sometimes Sometimes

Key CIA Insight:

An auditor may be independent but not objective, or objective but not independent, but cannot lack integrity under any circumstances.

 

Consequences of Violation

Loss of stakeholder confidence

Audit findings ignored

Regulatory scrutiny

Professional disciplinary action

Violation of IIA Code of Ethics

 

Here are some key words for CIA Part 1 exam on Objectivity, Integrity, and Independence of Internal Auditor:


Key Concepts

- *Objectivity*: Unbiased, impartial, and independent mindset

- *Integrity*: Honest, trustworthy, and ethical behavior

- *Independence*: Freedom from undue influence, conflicts of interest


Key Points

- Internal auditors must maintain objectivity and independence

- Avoid conflicts of interest, bias, or undue influence

- Disclose any impairments to independence or objectivity

- Maintain professional skepticism and due care

- Uphold confidentiality and avoid misuse of information


Relevant Standards

- *IIA Standards*: 1100, 1110, 1120, 1130 (Independence and Objectivity)

- *Code of Ethics*: Principles of Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality, and Competency

Some possible exam questions:

- What are the threats to internal auditor independence?

- How can internal auditors maintain objectivity?

- What should an internal auditor do if they encounter a conflict of interest?

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TRICKY LOGICAL QUESTIONS (CIA Part 1 Style)

 

Question 1 (Objectivity vs Independence Trap)

An internal auditor previously worked as the procurement manager until six months ago. The CAE assigns the auditor to audit procurement due to staff shortage. The auditor believes they can remain unbiased.

Which statement is MOST appropriate?

A. The assignment is acceptable if the auditor remains objective

B. The assignment impairs objectivity, regardless of auditor belief

C. The assignment impairs independence of the internal audit activity

D. Disclosure alone eliminates any impairment

✅ Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Self-review threat exists. Belief of objectivity is irrelevant. Objectivity is impaired due to recent operational responsibility.

 

Question 2 (Integrity Logic Test)

Management asks an internal auditor to delay reporting a significant control weakness until next quarter to avoid reputational damage. The auditor agrees but plans to disclose it later.

Which principle is primarily violated?

A. Objectivity

B. Independence

C. Integrity

D. Confidentiality

✅ Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Delaying disclosure of known material issues violates honesty and responsibility, which directly breaches integrity.

 

Question 3 (Perception vs Reality)

An internal auditor is auditing a department headed by a close friend. The auditor feels confident of remaining unbiased and has no financial interest.

What is the BEST action?

A. Proceed with audit since no actual bias exists

B. Proceed but disclose relationship in the report

C. Decline assignment to avoid perceived impairment

D. Request management approval

✅ Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Perceived impairment of objectivity is sufficient under CIA standards.

 

Question 4 (Consulting Engagement Trick)

The internal audit activity assists management in designing a risk management framework and later performs an assurance review of the same framework.

What is the MOST appropriate safeguard?

A. No safeguard needed since consulting does not impair independence

B. Disclosure of consulting role in the assurance report

C. Independent review by an external auditor

D. Assign different auditors for the assurance engagement

✅ Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Using different auditors avoids self-review threat and preserves objectivity.

 

Question 5 (Board vs Management Reporting)

The CAE reports administratively and functionally to the CFO. Audit scope is approved by management.

Which principle is MOST compromised?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Organizational independence

D. Individual independence

✅ Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Functional reporting must be to the board, not management.

 

Question 6 (Disclosure Misconception)

Which of the following impairments CANNOT be resolved solely by disclosure?

A. Previous consulting engagement

B. Familiarity threat

C. Management responsibility assumed by auditor

D. Financial interest disclosed

✅ Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Assuming management responsibility fundamentally impairs independence — disclosure is not sufficient.

 

Exam Tip (VERY IMPORTANT ⭐)

Integrity cannot be restored by safeguards.

Objectivity may be protected by safeguards.

Independence depends on structure and role clarity.

 

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Monday, February 2, 2026

Casebased question ⁉️ Integrity Objectivity Independence etc CIA Part 1

 

Here are case-based MCQs with answers focused specifically on objectivity, integrity, independence, proficiency, and professional credibility — topics emphasized in the CIA Part 1 (New Syllabus 2025).FIRST SOLVE..THEN CHECK ✅ YOURSELF, ANSWERS ARE AT THE END..


OBJECTIVITY & INDEPENDENCE

Q1 — Case

An internal auditor in a multinational company has been asked to audit a division where a close relative is a senior manager. The auditor believes they can remain unbiased.

Which of the following is the best course of action according to internal audit standards?

A. Accept the assignment but disclose the relationship to the division manager.
B. Request reassignment to a different audit to avoid any perception of bias.
C. Proceed with the audit because the auditor feels objective.
D. Conduct the audit with limited reporting.

Answer: 


Q2 — Case

During an audit of procurement controls, an auditor realizes they’ve developed a close friendship with one of the procurement supervisors. The supervisor often provides informal suggestions during audit work.

What should the auditor do?

A. Disregard this friend’s influence but continue the audit.
B. Document the relationship but remain on the engagement.
C. Inform the audit manager and remove themselves from the audit if needed.
D. Accept suggestions as long as they help audit work.

Answer: 


INTEGRITY & PROFESSIONAL BEHAVIOR

Q3 — Case

An internal auditor discovers evidence of expense fraud by a senior executive. The executive threatens that disclosing the findings will harm the auditor’s career.

According to professional standards, the internal auditor should:

A. Refrain from reporting to protect their job.
B. Report the findings to the audit committee or equivalent authority.
C. Modify the findings to reduce severity.
D. Discuss the issue only with the executive to avoid conflict.

Answer:


Q4 — Case

An internal audit manager finds that a long-serving junior auditor has been inflating audit hours on timesheets to receive higher productivity scores.

What is the most appropriate action for the manager?

A. Ignore it to maintain team morale.
B. Report it to human resources or audit leadership and take corrective action.
C. Adjust the hours themselves without notifying anyone.
D. Advise the junior auditor to be more honest in future.

Answer: 


PROFICIENCY & DUE PROFESSIONAL CARE

Q5 — Case

An internal audit team is assigned to evaluate complex IT security controls. None of the team members have experience or certification in IT auditing.

The best action before performing the engagement is to:

A. Proceed and learn on the job.
B. Outsource or involve auditors with appropriate IT expertise.
C. Skip the detailed audit steps.
D. Rely on management’s assurance.

Answer:


Q6 — Case

During a financial statement audit, an internal auditor encounters accounting treatments that are unfamiliar and potentially misleading.

Which action shows due professional care?

A. Ignore the unfamiliar treatments and proceed.
B. Consult with a senior auditor or accounting specialist.
C. Conclude the accounts are correct because management authorized them.
D. Guess the appropriate treatment based on experience in other areas.

Answer:


PROFESSIONAL CREDIBILITY

Q7 — Case

An internal audit report understated a significant control deficiency because the auditor believed management would be upset and delay future support for audit work.

Which of the following BEST describes what was compromised?

A. Audit efficiency
B. Professional credibility
C. Auditor independence
D. Regulatory compliance

Answer: 


Q8 — Case

A chief audit executive (CAE) wants to increase the internal audit’s visibility and influence in the organization. However, their reports contain frequent inaccuracies and unsupported conclusions.

Which of the following should the CAE do FIRST?

A. Assign more audits to junior auditors to build experience.
B. Improve quality assurance and training in the internal audit practice.
C. Focus on public relations to enhance perception.
D. Reduce the number of audits issued each year.

Answer: 


KEY TAKEAWAYS

Objectivity & Independence: Avoid conflicts and perceptions of bias.
Integrity: Always be truthful and report significant issues even under pressure.
Proficiency: Ensure skills and knowledge are adequate for assignments.
Due Professional Care: Use judgment, seek help, and apply audit standards.
Professional Credibility: Built through reliability, accuracy, and ethical conduct.

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ANSWERS...


OBJECTIVITY & INDEPENDENCE

Q1 — Case

An internal auditor in a multinational company has been asked to audit a division where a close relative is a senior manager. The auditor believes they can remain unbiased.

Which of the following is the best course of action according to internal audit standards?

A. Accept the assignment but disclose the relationship to the division manager.
B. Request reassignment to a different audit to avoid any perception of bias.
C. Proceed with the audit because the auditor feels objective.
D. Conduct the audit with limited reporting.

Answer: B – Auditors must avoid conflicts of interest and maintain independence; disclosing isn’t enough when a close relative is involved.

Principle: Objectivity & independence require avoiding situations that impair unbiased judgment.


Q2 — Case

During an audit of procurement controls, an auditor realizes they’ve developed a close friendship with one of the procurement supervisors. The supervisor often provides informal suggestions during audit work.

What should the auditor do?

A. Disregard this friend’s influence but continue the audit.
B. Document the relationship but remain on the engagement.
C. Inform the audit manager and remove themselves from the audit if needed.
D. Accept suggestions as long as they help audit work.

Answer: C – The auditor must address the possible impairment of objectivity by involving supervision and changing assignment if necessary.

Principle: Objectivity also means avoiding relationships that compromise or appear to compromise judgment.


INTEGRITY & PROFESSIONAL BEHAVIOR

Q3 — Case

An internal auditor discovers evidence of expense fraud by a senior executive. The executive threatens that disclosing the findings will harm the auditor’s career.

According to professional standards, the internal auditor should:

A. Refrain from reporting to protect their job.
B. Report the findings to the audit committee or equivalent authority.
C. Modify the findings to reduce severity.
D. Discuss the issue only with the executive to avoid conflict.

Answer: B – Auditors must maintain integrity and report significant findings to the appropriate level.

Principle: Integrity means honesty and truthfulness; it overrides personal threats or pressure.


Q4 — Case

An internal audit manager finds that a long-serving junior auditor has been inflating audit hours on timesheets to receive higher productivity scores.

What is the most appropriate action for the manager?

A. Ignore it to maintain team morale.
B. Report it to human resources or audit leadership and take corrective action.
C. Adjust the hours themselves without notifying anyone.
D. Advise the junior auditor to be more honest in future.

Answer: B – The situation involves ethical misconduct and must be reported and addressed appropriately.

Principle: Integrity applies not only to audit results but also professional conduct.


PROFICIENCY & DUE PROFESSIONAL CARE

Q5 — Case

An internal audit team is assigned to evaluate complex IT security controls. None of the team members have experience or certification in IT auditing.

The best action before performing the engagement is to:

A. Proceed and learn on the job.
B. Outsource or involve auditors with appropriate IT expertise.
C. Skip the detailed audit steps.
D. Rely on management’s assurance.

Answer: B – Auditors must have the knowledge, skills, or bring in specialists to conduct the audit properly.

Principle: Proficiency and due professional care require competent personnel and appropriate skills.


Q6 — Case

During a financial statement audit, an internal auditor encounters accounting treatments that are unfamiliar and potentially misleading.

Which action shows due professional care?

A. Ignore the unfamiliar treatments and proceed.
B. Consult with a senior auditor or accounting specialist.
C. Conclude the accounts are correct because management authorized them.
D. Guess the appropriate treatment based on experience in other areas.

Answer: B – Seeking expert input improves audit quality and accuracy.

Principle: Due professional care means using appropriate competence and obtaining help when needed.


PROFESSIONAL CREDIBILITY

Q7 — Case

An internal audit report understated a significant control deficiency because the auditor believed management would be upset and delay future support for audit work.

Which of the following BEST describes what was compromised?

A. Audit efficiency
B. Professional credibility
C. Auditor independence
D. Regulatory compliance

Answer: B – Professional credibility suffers when auditors alter findings to appease management.

Principle: Credibility requires accurate, complete, unbiased reporting.


Q8 — Case

A chief audit executive (CAE) wants to increase the internal audit’s visibility and influence in the organization. However, their reports contain frequent inaccuracies and unsupported conclusions.

Which of the following should the CAE do FIRST?

A. Assign more audits to junior auditors to build experience.
B. Improve quality assurance and training in the internal audit practice.
C. Focus on public relations to enhance perception.
D. Reduce the number of audits issued each year.

Answer: B – Without quality and accuracy, credibility cannot be built.

Principle: Credibility derives from consistent quality, not visibility alone.

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Friday, January 30, 2026

Internal control,coso cobit


An internal control system is a set of policies, procedures, and processes implemented by management to ensure reliable financial reporting, operational efficiency, compliance with laws, and asset protection. It acts as a safeguard against fraud and errors, providing reasonable assurance, rather than absolute certainty, of achieving organizational objectives. 
Definition
According to the AICPA Taxmann, internal control comprises the plan of organization and all coordinate methods adopted within a business to safeguard assets, check the accuracy and reliability of accounting data, promote operational efficiency, and encourage adherence to prescribed managerial policies. 
Types of Internal Controls
Internal controls are categorized based on their function: 
  • Preventive Controls: Designed to stop errors or fraud before they occur (e.g., segregation of duties, authorization limits, password protections).
  • Detective Controls: Designed to identify errors or fraud after they have occurred (e.g., bank reconciliations, physical inventory checks, audits).
  • Corrective Controls: Implemented to fix issues discovered by detective controls (e.g., correcting data entry errors, updating policies).
  • Administrative/Management Controls: Focused on operational efficiency and compliance (e.g., training programs, performance evaluations). 
Components of Internal Control
Often based on the COSO framework, these include: 
  1. Control Environment: The tone at the top.
  2. Risk Assessment: Identifying risks to objectives.
  3. Control Activities: Policies/procedures (segregation of duties).
  4. Information and Communication: Systems that facilitate controls.
  5. Monitoring: Ongoing evaluations of the system. 
Limitations of Internal Controls
While essential, internal controls have inherent limitations: 
  • Human Judgment & Error: Mistakes in decision-making, fatigue, or misunderstanding of instructions.
  • Management Override: High-level personnel may bypass controls for, or, to mask fraud.
  • Collusion: Two or more employees work together to bypass segregation of duties.
  • Cost vs. Benefit: The cost of implementing a control might outweigh its benefits.
  • Obsolescence: Systems may not adapt quickly enough to new, changing business risks. 
Internal control systems are not designed to eliminate risk entirely, but to manage it to an acceptable level. 

INTERNAL CONTROL – ULTRA IMPORTANT REVISION NOTES

(US CMA Part 1 & Part 2)


1️⃣ Meaning & Definition of Internal Control

Internal Control = a process designed and implemented by Board, Management & Employees to provide reasonable assurance regarding:

  1. Effectiveness & efficiency of operations
  2. Reliability of financial reporting
  3. Compliance with laws & regulations

👉 KEY WORD: Process, not event | Reasonable, not absolute

📌 Exam Trap: Internal control does NOT guarantee prevention of fraud or errors.


2️⃣ Objectives of Internal Control

  • Safeguard assets
  • Ensure accurate & reliable records
  • Promote operational efficiency
  • Ensure compliance
  • Prevent & detect fraud/errors

3️⃣ Types of Internal Control

(A) Based on Nature

  • Administrative controls – policies, authorizations
  • Accounting controls – safeguarding assets, accurate records

(B) Based on Timing

  • Preventive controls → stop errors (authorizations, segregation)
  • Detective controls → find errors (reconciliation, audits)
  • Corrective controls → fix errors (backup restoration, adjustments)

📌 Best Practice: Strong preventive controls ↓ need for detective controls


4️⃣ Requisites of Good Internal Control System

  • Proper segregation of duties
  • Authorization & approval procedures
  • Adequate documentation
  • Physical & logical access controls
  • Independent checks
  • Competent personnel
  • Rotation of duties & mandatory leave

5️⃣ Inherent Limitations of Internal Control (VERY EXAMINABLE)

Internal control cannot eliminate risk because of:

  1. Human error
  2. Management override
  3. Collusion
  4. Cost > benefit constraint
  5. Changing environment
  6. Poor judgment

📌 MCQ Clue: Any option claiming absolute assurance = ❌


6️⃣ Effective Internal Control System – Characteristics

  • Integrated with operations
  • Continuous monitoring
  • Risk-based approach
  • Clear accountability
  • Supported by governance
  • Technology enabled

7️⃣ Internal Control Process Flow

Objectives → Risk Identification → Control Design → Implementation → Monitoring → Improvement


8️⃣ Risk Owner (Frequently Tested Concept)

  • Person accountable for managing a specific risk
  • Usually process owner, not auditor
  • Responsible for:
    • Identifying risk
    • Implementing controls
    • Reporting failures

📌 Trap: Internal auditor is NOT risk owner


9️⃣ Governance & Internal Control

Governance ensures:

  • Ethical behavior
  • Accountability
  • Transparency
  • Oversight

Key Governance Players:


🔟 Role of Board of Directors

  • Ultimate responsibility for IC
  • Set tone at the top
  • Approve risk appetite
  • Oversee financial reporting
  • Ensure independence of auditors

📌 Board does NOT design controls – management does


1️⃣1️⃣ Role of Audit Committee (HOT EXAM AREA)

  • Independent directors
  • Oversees:
    • Financial reporting
    • Internal control effectiveness
    • Internal & external auditors
  • Reviews whistleblower complaints
  • Ensures auditor independence

📌 Audit Committee ≠ Management


1️⃣2️⃣ COSO Framework (CORE FOR CMA)

COSO = Internal Control – Integrated Framework

5 Components

  1. Control Environment
  2. Risk Assessment
  3. Control Activities
  4. Information & Communication
  5. Monitoring Activities

17 Principles (conceptual, not memorization heavy)

📌 Most tested component: Control Environment & Risk Assessment


1️⃣3️⃣ Risk Assessment (Deep Focus Area)

  • Identify & analyze risks
  • Consider:
  • Risk responses:
    • Avoid
    • Reduce
    • Transfer
    • Accept

📌 Dynamic process, not one-time


1️⃣4️⃣ COBIT & COSO – How They Support Each Other

COSO COBIT
Overall internal control IT governance & control
Enterprise-wide IT focused
Strategic framework Detailed control objectives

📌 Exam Line: COBIT complements COSO for IT controls


1️⃣5️⃣ Preventive, Detective & Corrective Controls

Examples:

  • Preventive: Segregation, authorization
  • Detective: Reconciliations, audits
  • Corrective: Data restoration, reprocessing

📌 Best IC system uses all three


1️⃣6️⃣ Compensating (Complementary) Controls

Used when ideal control not feasible Example:

  • No segregation → strong supervisory review

📌 Common MCQ: Compensating ≠ replacement


1️⃣7️⃣ Failure of Internal Control – Reasons

  • Poor design
  • Weak implementation
  • Lack of monitoring
  • Override by management
  • Inadequate training
  • System changes

1️⃣8️⃣ Components of Control System

(A) Input Controls

  • Authorization
  • Edit checks
  • Validation checks
  • Batch controls

(B) Processing Controls

  • Run-to-run totals
  • Reasonableness checks
  • Error logs

(C) Output Controls

  • Distribution controls
  • Review of reports
  • Reconciliation with source data

1️⃣9️⃣ Application Controls vs General Controls

Application Controls

  • Specific to individual systems
  • Input, processing, output controls

General Controls

  • Affect overall IT environment
  • Access controls
  • Change management
  • Backup & recovery
  • IT governance

📌 General controls must be strong for application controls to be effective


2️⃣0️⃣ Accounting Information System (AIS) & Internal Control

AIS helps:

  • Capture transactions accurately
  • Process data consistently
  • Generate reliable reports
  • Enforce controls automatically

AIS + IC Ensures:

  • Data integrity
  • Audit trail
  • Timely reporting
  • Compliance

📌 Automation improves control but does NOT eliminate risk


🔥 2-Minute EXAM ELIMINATION LOGIC

✔ Look for “reasonable assurance”
❌ Eliminate “absolute assurance”
✔ Management designs controls
❌ Auditors are not responsible for IC
✔ Preventive > Detective
❌ Collusion can defeat IC


🎯 HOW CMA EXAM TESTS THIS TOPIC

  • Conceptual MCQs (definitions & roles)
  • Case-based questions (control failure)
  • COSO component identification
  • IT & AIS control linkage
  • Governance vs Management responsibility

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1️⃣ Control Environment vs Control Activities – Core Difference

Basis Control Environment Control Activities
Meaning Overall tone, culture & attitude of the organization Specific policies & procedures to ensure directives are carried out
Nature Intangible / qualitative Tangible / operational
Focus “How seriously management takes control” “What controls are actually performed”
Level Organization-wide Process / transaction level
Responsibility Board, Top management, Audit committee Managers, employees
Timing Foundational – exists before other controls Executed daily
COSO component 1st component 3rd component
Impact Influences effectiveness of all controls Directly prevents/detects errors & fraud

📌 One-line exam logic

Control Environment = Mindset
Control Activities = Mechanism


2️⃣ Control Environment – Explained with Example

🔹 What it includes

  • Integrity & ethical values
  • Management philosophy
  • Organizational structure
  • Assignment of authority & responsibility
  • HR policies
  • Role of Board & Audit Committee

🔹 Practical Example

Company A

  • Strong code of ethics
  • Zero tolerance for fraud
  • Independent audit committee
  • Clear reporting lines

➡️ This creates a strong control environment, even before any procedures are applied.

📌 Key exam trick
If the question talks about culture, ethics, tone at the top, governance → it is Control Environment.


3️⃣ Control Activities – Explained with Example

🔹 What it includes

  • Authorization & approval
  • Segregation of duties
  • Reconciliations
  • Physical controls
  • IT access controls
  • Supervisory reviews

🔹 Practical Example

Company B

  • Purchase orders approved by manager
  • Cash handling and recording done by different employees
  • Bank reconciliation prepared monthly

➡️ These are control activities.

📌 Key exam trick
If the question talks about procedures, approvals, checks, reconciliations → it is Control Activities.


4️⃣ Side-by-Side Real-Life Case Example

🏭 Manufacturing Company Case

  • CEO promotes ethical behavior & transparent reporting
    👉 Control Environment

  • Inventory is:

    • Counted monthly
    • Access restricted
    • Differences investigated
      👉 Control Activities

🔥 Exam Insight
A company can have strong control activities but weak control environment → controls may fail due to management override.


5️⃣ Case-Based MCQs (US CMA / CA / ACCA Style)

MCQ 1 – Identification

A company has well-designed approval procedures, but senior management frequently overrides them to meet profit targets. Which component is weak?

A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Control environment
D. Information & communication

Answer: C

Explanation:
Override by top management indicates weak tone at the top, i.e., control environment.

Wrong option trap:
B looks tempting because procedures exist, but procedures are not the problem.


MCQ 2 – Best Option

Which of the following BEST represents a control activity?

A. Management commitment to integrity
B. Board oversight
C. Segregation of cash handling and recording
D. Ethical code of conduct

Answer: C

Elimination logic:

  • A, B, D → Control Environment
  • Only C is an operational control

MCQ 3 – Case Based

An organization has:

  • Strong ethical culture
  • Clear authority structure
  • No bank reconciliations
  • Same employee handles cash & recording

Which statement is MOST appropriate?

A. Control environment and control activities are strong
B. Control environment strong; control activities weak
C. Control environment weak; control activities strong
D. Both are weak

Answer: B

📌 Exam gold point:
Strong culture cannot substitute for missing control activities.


MCQ 4 – Look Correct but Wrong

Which of the following is NOT a control activity?

A. Management review of performance reports
B. Authorization of transactions
C. Commitment to competence
D. Physical safeguards over assets

Answer: C

⚠️ Trap:
“Commitment” sounds like action but belongs to Control Environment (HR policy).


6️⃣ Ultra-Short Exam Ready Summary (Write & Score)

Control Environment sets the tone of the organization by influencing control consciousness, while Control Activities are specific actions and procedures designed to ensure management directives are carried out.


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🔥 MCQ SET: Control Environment vs Control Activities (25 Questions)


MCQ 1

Which of the following BEST describes the control environment?

A. Specific procedures designed to prevent errors
B. Policies ensuring proper authorization
C. Overall attitude, awareness, and actions of management
D. Periodic reconciliation of accounts

Answer: C


MCQ 2

A company has strong segregation of duties, but senior management pressures employees to bypass controls to meet targets. Which component is MOST weak?

A. Control activities
B. Risk assessment
C. Control environment
D. Monitoring

Answer: C


MCQ 3

Which of the following is an example of a control activity?

A. Code of ethical conduct
B. Independent audit committee
C. Management philosophy
D. Monthly bank reconciliation

Answer: D


MCQ 4

“Tone at the top” primarily affects which COSO component?

A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Information & communication
D. Control environment

Answer: D


MCQ 5

A company emphasizes ethical behavior but has no formal approval process for purchases. Which statement is CORRECT?

A. Strong control environment, weak control activities
B. Weak control environment, strong control activities
C. Both strong
D. Both weak

Answer: A


MCQ 6

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a control activity?

A. Authorization of credit sales
B. Physical safeguards over inventory
C. Segregation of duties
D. Management commitment to competence

Answer: D


MCQ 7

An organization has detailed procedures, but employees ignore them because management does not enforce discipline. This BEST illustrates:

A. Inherent limitations
B. Weak control activities
C. Weak control environment
D. Poor risk assessment

Answer: C


MCQ 8

Which statement BEST differentiates control activities from the control environment?

A. Control activities are preventive; environment is detective
B. Control activities are operational; environment is cultural
C. Control activities are strategic; environment is tactical
D. Control activities are informal; environment is formal

Answer: B


MCQ 9

Which of the following belongs to the control environment?

A. IT access controls
B. Approval limits
C. Human resource policies
D. Inventory counts

Answer: C


MCQ 10

A company requires dual signatures on cheques. This is an example of:

A. Risk assessment
B. Control environment
C. Control activity
D. Monitoring

Answer: C


MCQ 11 (Case Based)

Despite having ethical guidelines and a strong board, the same employee records cash receipts and deposits cash. What does this indicate?

A. Strong control environment but weak control activities
B. Weak control environment but strong control activities
C. Both strong
D. Inherent limitation only

Answer: A


MCQ 12

Which COSO component provides the foundation for all other components?

A. Monitoring
B. Control activities
C. Control environment
D. Risk assessment

Answer: C


MCQ 13

Which of the following is a preventive control activity?

A. Internal audit review
B. Bank reconciliation
C. Segregation of duties
D. Exception report

Answer: C


MCQ 14

Management override of controls primarily undermines:

A. Control activities
B. Control environment
C. Monitoring
D. Information systems

Answer: B


MCQ 15

Which of the following would MOST likely strengthen the control environment?

A. Increasing number of reconciliations
B. Installing CCTV cameras
C. Establishing an independent audit committee
D. Introducing approval stamps

Answer: C


MCQ 16 (Look Correct but Wrong)

Which of the following appears to be a control activity but is actually part of the control environment?

A. Supervision of employees
B. Commitment to integrity and ethical values
C. Review of exception reports
D. Authorization of transactions

Answer: B


MCQ 17

Control activities are designed primarily to:

A. Set ethical standards
B. Identify organizational risks
C. Ensure management directives are carried out
D. Establish governance structure

Answer: C


MCQ 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of control activities?

A. Transaction-level focus
B. Cultural influence
C. Preventive or detective nature
D. Policy and procedure based

Answer: B


MCQ 19

A weak control environment may result in:

A. Elimination of inherent limitations
B. Stronger risk assessment
C. Failure of otherwise well-designed control activities
D. Automatic fraud detection

Answer: C


MCQ 20

Which of the following pairs is CORRECT?

A. Control environment – Authorization procedures
B. Control activities – Ethical culture
C. Control environment – Governance oversight
D. Control activities – Management philosophy

Answer: C


MCQ 21 (Case Based)

The board is independent, ethical training is mandatory, but purchase orders are not reviewed. Identify the weakness.

A. Control environment
B. Control activities
C. Risk assessment
D. Monitoring

Answer: B


MCQ 22

Which statement is TRUE?

A. Strong control activities guarantee fraud prevention
B. Control environment eliminates management override
C. Control activities operate at transaction level
D. Control environment is a subset of control activities

Answer: C


MCQ 23

Which is an example of detective control activity?

A. Pre-approval of expenses
B. Bank reconciliation
C. Segregation of duties
D. Physical access restriction

Answer: B


MCQ 24

Which COSO component addresses integrity, ethics, and competence?

A. Control activities
B. Risk assessment
C. Monitoring
D. Control environment

Answer: D


MCQ 25 (Exam Trap)

A company has strong internal controls on paper, but fraud still occurs due to collusion. This BEST reflects:

A. Weak control activities
B. Weak control environment
C. Inherent limitations of internal control
D. Poor information system

Answer: C


🎯 How Examiners Trap You (Quick Tips)

  • Ethics / tone / culture → Control Environment
  • Approval / segregation / reconciliation → Control Activities
  • Override / collusion → Inherent limitations
  • “On paper but not in practice” → Environment problem



🔥 50 ULTRA-TRICKY CASE-BASED MCQs

INTERNAL CONTROL | COSO | GOVERNANCE | AIS | IT CONTROLS


Q1

A company states that its internal control system ensures all fraud will be prevented.

Which COSO principle is being misunderstood?

A. Control Environment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Reasonable assurance
D. Monitoring

Answer: C

Explanation:
Internal control provides reasonable, not absolute assurance. Fraud can still occur due to collusion or override.


Q2

A senior manager bypasses approval limits to authorize payments.

This illustrates which inherent limitation?

A. Human error
B. Cost-benefit constraint
C. Management override
D. Poor monitoring

Answer: C


Q3

An internal auditor is assigned responsibility for mitigating cybersecurity risk.

This violates which principle?

A. Risk ownership
B. Independence
C. Segregation of duties
D. Monitoring

Answer: A

📌 Risk owner = Management, not Internal Audit


Q4

Segregation of duties is not feasible due to staff shortage. Management increases supervisory review.

This is an example of:

A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Compensating control
D. Corrective control

Answer: C


Q5

Which control is MOST effective in preventing duplicate payments?

A. Bank reconciliation
B. Independent audit
C. Authorization before payment
D. Post-payment review

Answer: C

📌 Preventive > Detective


Q6

A system logs all failed login attempts and alerts IT.

This is a:

A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Governance control

Answer: B


Q7

Which party has ultimate responsibility for internal control effectiveness?

A. Internal auditor
B. Audit committee
C. Board of Directors
D. External auditor

Answer: C


Q8

An audit committee is reviewing whistleblower complaints.

This activity relates to:

A. Risk assessment
B. Control activities
C. Governance oversight
D. Application control

Answer: C


Q9

A company uses run-to-run totals to ensure data completeness.

This is a:

A. Input control
B. Processing control
C. Output control
D. General IT control

Answer: B


Q10

Access to accounting software is restricted using passwords.

This is:

A. Application control
B. Output control
C. General control
D. Detective control

Answer: C


Q11

Which COSO component sets ethical tone?

A. Monitoring
B. Risk Assessment
C. Control Environment
D. Control Activities

Answer: C


Q12

A company identifies foreign exchange risk due to overseas sales.

Which COSO component?

A. Information & Communication
B. Risk Assessment
C. Monitoring
D. Control Activities

Answer: B


Q13

An automated system rejects invalid customer codes.

This is:

A. Preventive application control
B. Detective general control
C. Corrective control
D. Output control

Answer: A


Q14

If general IT controls are weak, application controls are:

A. Strengthened
B. Unaffected
C. Less reliable
D. Automatically overridden

Answer: C

📌 Classic CMA favorite


Q15

Which situation BEST indicates control failure?

A. Error detected by reconciliation
B. Fraud detected by audit
C. Management override undetected
D. Corrective action taken

Answer: C


Q16

AIS improves internal control primarily by:

A. Eliminating human involvement
B. Increasing automation & audit trails
C. Replacing management judgment
D. Ensuring absolute accuracy

Answer: B


Q17

Which control ensures reports go only to authorized users?

A. Input validation
B. Output distribution control
C. Processing check
D. Access authorization

Answer: B


Q18

Which risk response accepts residual risk?

A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk transfer
D. Risk acceptance

Answer: D


Q19

COBIT primarily focuses on:

A. Financial reporting controls
B. Enterprise governance
C. IT governance & controls
D. Ethical standards

Answer: C


Q20

COSO and COBIT relationship is BEST described as:

A. Competing frameworks
B. COBIT replaces COSO
C. COBIT complements COSO
D. COSO is IT-specific

Answer: C


Q21

Which control BEST detects unauthorized changes in programs?

A. Input validation
B. Version control
C. Change management
D. Access control

Answer: C


Q22

Mandatory employee vacation helps prevent:

A. Human error
B. Collusion
C. Long-term fraud concealment
D. System failure

Answer: C


Q23

A reconciliation identifies an error after posting.

This is:

A. Preventive
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Compensating

Answer: B


Q24

Correcting the error after detection is:

A. Preventive
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Governance

Answer: C


Q25

Which control ensures data entered is reasonable?

A. Limit check
B. Batch total
C. Hash total
D. Run-to-run total

Answer: A


Q26

Which control BEST prevents collusion?

A. Segregation alone
B. Independent oversight
C. Automation
D. Authorization

Answer: B

📌 Collusion defeats basic controls


Q27

Who designs internal controls?

A. Internal auditor
B. Board
C. Management
D. Audit committee

Answer: C


Q28

Monitoring activities include:

A. Authorization
B. Reconciliations
C. Ongoing evaluations
D. Risk identification

Answer: C


Q29

A weak control environment MOST likely results in:

A. Efficient processing
B. Ethical compliance
C. Increased fraud risk
D. Strong monitoring

Answer: C


Q30

Which is NOT an inherent limitation?

A. Human judgment
B. Collusion
C. Cost-benefit
D. Auditor independence

Answer: D


Q31

Audit committee independence improves:

A. Control design
B. Operational efficiency
C. Financial reporting oversight
D. Risk ownership

Answer: C


Q32

Which is an output control?

A. Check digit
B. Authorization
C. Report reconciliation
D. Access restriction

Answer: C


Q33

An edit check rejects alphabetic characters in numeric fields.

This is:

A. Output control
B. Processing control
C. Input control
D. General control

Answer: C


Q34

A company backs up data daily.

This is:

A. Preventive
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Monitoring

Answer: C

📌 Backup helps recovery


Q35

Which control addresses compliance with laws?

A. Control Environment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Governance
D. Monitoring

Answer: C


Q36

Which party evaluates internal control independently?

A. Management
B. Internal audit
C. Board
D. Risk owner

Answer: B


Q37

Residual risk exists when:

A. No controls exist
B. Controls eliminate all risk
C. Controls reduce but do not eliminate risk
D. Risk is transferred

Answer: C


Q38

An automated approval workflow reduces:

A. Human judgment
B. Inherent risk
C. Control risk
D. Detection risk

Answer: C


Q39

Which control ensures data completeness?

A. Hash totals
B. Authorization
C. Password control
D. Review reports

Answer: A


Q40

Which COSO component links information flow?

A. Monitoring
B. Control Activities
C. Information & Communication
D. Control Environment

Answer: C


Q41

A failure to update controls after system change is a:

A. Design failure
B. Implementation failure
C. Monitoring failure
D. Inherent limitation

Answer: C


Q42

Which situation MOST threatens internal control?

A. Human error
B. Collusion
C. Automated processing
D. Independent review

Answer: B


Q43

Which control is MOST cost-effective?

A. Detective
B. Preventive
C. Corrective
D. Monitoring

Answer: B


Q44

AIS contributes MOST to:

A. Ethical behavior
B. Audit opinion
C. Reliable reporting
D. Risk ownership

Answer: C


Q45

Which is NOT a general IT control?

A. Backup & recovery
B. Change management
C. Edit checks
D. Access controls

Answer: C


Q46

An error found during external audit indicates:

A. Effective control
B. Control failure
C. Reasonable assurance
D. Governance success

Answer: B


Q47

Which COSO component addresses fraud risk?

A. Control Environment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Monitoring
D. Information

Answer: B


Q48

Which party ensures “tone at the top”?

A. Internal auditor
B. Audit committee
C. Management & Board
D. External auditor

Answer: C


Q49

Which control ensures only valid programs run?

A. Input validation
B. Access control
C. Program change control
D. Output control

Answer: C


Q50

Strong internal control system ensures:

A. Absolute fraud prevention
B. Zero errors
C. Reasonable assurance
D. Auditor responsibility

Answer: C


🎯 EXAM STRATEGY TIP


Excellent choice 👍
This is exactly how toppers crack CMA MCQs. Below is a powerful WRONG-OPTION ELIMINATION LOGIC for Internal Control, COSO, Governance & AIS — use this when you’re stuck between options.


🔥 WRONG OPTION ELIMINATION LOGIC

Internal Control | COSO | AIS | Governance (US CMA Part 1 & 2)


1️⃣ ABSOLUTE WORDS = ❌ (FIRST ELIMINATION)

Immediately eliminate options containing:

  • Always
  • Completely
  • Guarantees
  • Eliminates all risk
  • Ensures zero fraud
  • Provides absolute assurance

📌 Correct CMA language = Reasonable assurance


2️⃣ WRONG RESPONSIBILITY = ❌

Eliminate options that assign responsibility incorrectly.

Topic Correct Eliminate
Design of IC Management Internal / External Auditor
Ultimate oversight Board Management only
Risk ownership Process owner Internal audit
Monitoring Internal audit Operations

📌 If auditor = owner/designer → ❌


3️⃣ PREVENTIVE vs DETECTIVE CONFUSION = ❌

If question asks BEST prevention, eliminate:

  • Reconciliations
  • Audits
  • Reviews after the fact

✔ Choose:

  • Authorization
  • Segregation
  • Validation checks

📌 Preventive > Detective > Corrective


4️⃣ COSO COMPONENT MISFIT = ❌

When matching examples to COSO components:

Control Environment

✔ Ethics, integrity, tone at top
❌ Reconciliations, approvals

Risk Assessment

✔ Identify & analyze risks
❌ Monitor controls

Control Activities

✔ Authorizations, segregation
❌ Culture, ethics

Information & Communication

✔ Data flow, reporting
❌ Control testing

Monitoring

✔ Ongoing evaluations
❌ Initial risk identification


5️⃣ GENERAL vs APPLICATION CONTROL TRAP

If general IT controls are weak:

❌ “Application controls are effective anyway”
❌ “No impact on systems”

✔ Correct logic:

Application controls become unreliable


6️⃣ COLLUSION LOGIC (HIGH-YIELD)

When collusion is mentioned:

❌ Segregation alone prevents fraud
❌ Automation eliminates fraud

✔ Best answers involve:

  • Independent oversight
  • Strong governance
  • Audit committee involvement

7️⃣ COMPENSATING CONTROL TRAP

Eliminate options saying:

❌ “Compensating control replaces segregation”

✔ Correct:

Compensating control reduces risk, does NOT replace ideal control


8️⃣ AIS & AUTOMATION TRAPS

Eliminate options that say:

❌ Automation removes need for control
❌ Computers eliminate human error
❌ IT guarantees accuracy

✔ Correct:

Technology enhances, not eliminates risk


9️⃣ CONTROL FAILURE LOGIC

If error/fraud is not detected timely:

✔ Control failure exists
❌ Reasonable assurance achieved
❌ Effective monitoring

📌 Detection after external audit = 🚨


🔟 AUDIT COMMITTEE vs MANAGEMENT CONFUSION

Eliminate options where:

❌ Audit committee manages daily controls
❌ Board designs controls

✔ Correct:

  • Management → design & operate
  • Audit Committee → oversight
  • Board → ultimate responsibility

1️⃣1️⃣ INPUT–PROCESS–OUTPUT CONFUSION

Input Controls

✔ Validation, edit checks
❌ Reconciliations

Processing Controls

✔ Run-to-run totals
❌ Authorization

Output Controls

✔ Report review, distribution
❌ Data entry checks


1️⃣2️⃣ RISK RESPONSE ELIMINATION

If risk still exists after controls:

✔ Residual risk
❌ Inherent risk eliminated
❌ Risk avoided completely


1️⃣3️⃣ GOVERNANCE LANGUAGE FILTER

Eliminate options lacking:

  • Oversight
  • Accountability
  • Transparency
  • Ethics

✔ Governance ≠ operations


1️⃣4️⃣ INHERENT LIMITATION FILTER

Valid inherent limitations: ✔ Collusion
✔ Management override
✔ Cost-benefit

❌ Auditor incompetence
❌ Lack of framework


1️⃣5️⃣ FINAL 10-SECOND RULE (EXAM DAY)

If confused, choose the option that: ✔ Sounds balanced
✔ Mentions reasonable assurance
✔ Assigns responsibility correctly
✔ Prefers preventive control
✔ Aligns with COSO logic


🧠 HOW TOPPERS USE THIS

  1. Strike 2 wrong options immediately
  2. Apply responsibility check
  3. Check preventive vs detective
  4. Read  remaining 2 slowly

Excellent 😈
These are the most dangerous CMA questions — options that sound perfect, use right words, but are WRONG. Below are 15 “LOOKS-CORRECT-BUT-WRONG” MCQs from Internal Control, COSO, Governance & AIS with why your brain falls for it.


⚠️ LOOKS-CORRECT-BUT-WRONG MCQs

US CMA Part 1 & Part 2 – Internal Control


MCQ 1

Internal control is effective if it ensures all material misstatements are prevented.

A. True
B. False

Looks correct because: “material” + “prevented”
Answer: B

🔍 Why wrong:
IC provides reasonable assurance, not guaranteed prevention.


MCQ 2

Strong segregation of duties eliminates fraud risk.

A. True
B. False

Trap: “Strong” sounds convincing
Answer: B

🔍 Why wrong:
Collusion & management override still exist.


MCQ 3

Because internal auditors evaluate controls, they are responsible for ensuring controls are effective.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Evaluation ≠ responsibility
Answer: B


MCQ 4

If a control detects an error quickly, the control is considered effective.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Speed ≠ prevention
Answer: B

🔍 Detective ≠ effective prevention


MCQ 5

Automation of accounting processes removes human error.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Technology bias
Answer: B


MCQ 6

The audit committee is responsible for designing and implementing internal controls.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Governance authority
Answer: B


MCQ 7

If errors are discovered during the external audit, the internal control system is still effective because errors were detected.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Detection logic
Answer: B

🔍 Late detection = control failure


MCQ 8

Compensating controls can fully replace segregation of duties.

A. True
B. False

Trap: “Compensating” word
Answer: B


MCQ 9

Residual risk exists only when controls are weak.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Logical sounding
Answer: B

🔍 Residual risk exists even with strong controls


MCQ 10

General IT controls are less important when application controls are strong.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Practical thinking
Answer: B

📌 Weak general controls undermine everything


MCQ 11

A strong control environment ensures ethical behavior by all employees.

A. True
B. False

Trap: “Tone at the top” exaggeration
Answer: B


MCQ 12

If management accepts a risk, it means no control is required.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Risk acceptance misunderstanding
Answer: B


MCQ 13

Monitoring activities focus primarily on identifying new risks.

A. True
B. False

Trap: COSO component mix
Answer: B

📌 Risk identification = Risk Assessment


MCQ 14

Input controls alone are sufficient to ensure accurate processing.

A. True
B. False

Trap: Partial truth
Answer: B


MCQ 15

Because AIS generates audit trails, internal auditors do not need to test controls extensively.

A. True
B. False

Trap: AIS overconfidence
Answer: B


🧠 COMMON PATTERNS IN “LOOK-RIGHT-BUT-WRONG” OPTIONS

Watch out for:

  • Absolute promises
  • Authority confusion (auditor/board)
  • Technology overconfidence
  • Late detection = “effective”
  • One control solving everything

🚀 HOW TO BEAT THESE IN EXAM

When an option feels too comfortable, ask: 1️⃣ Does it claim perfection? ❌
2️⃣ Does it shift responsibility? ❌
3️⃣ Does it ignore residual risk? ❌


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