Saturday, September 5, 2026

answers: US CMA Part 1 – Internal Control, SOX, FCPA, COSO & COBIT

 

answers: US CMA Part 1 – Internal Control, SOX, FCPA, COSO & COBIT

answers:

US CMA Part 1 – Internal Control, SOX, FCPA, COSO & COBIT

50  MCQs (Exam-Oriented)



1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of an effective internal control system?

A. Safeguarding assets
B. Ensuring reliable financial reporting
C. Guaranteeing that fraud will never occur
D. Promoting operational efficiency

Answer: C


2. Internal control does NOT provide reasonable assurance regarding:

A. Achievement of objectives
B. Reliability of financial reporting
C. Absolute prevention of all errors
D. Compliance with laws and regulations

Answer: C


3. Which of the following is NOT one of the five components of the COSO Internal Control Framework?

A. Control environment
B. Risk assessment
C. Risk transfer
D. Monitoring activities

Answer: C


4. Which is NOT considered a limitation of internal control?

A. Collusion among employees
B. Management override
C. Human error
D. Absolute guarantee of achieving objectives

Answer: D


5. Which of the following is NOT primarily the responsibility of management?

A. Establishing internal controls
B. Maintaining internal controls
C. Designing appropriate controls
D. Providing an external audit opinion

Answer: D


6. Which activity would NOT normally be considered a preventive control?

A. Segregation of duties
B. Password authorization
C. Bank reconciliation
D. Physical access restrictions

Answer: C


7. Which of the following is NOT a detective control?

A. Bank reconciliation
B. Physical inventory count
C. Exception reports
D. Employee authorization limits

Answer: D


8. Segregation of duties is designed primarily to reduce the risk of all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Fraud
B. Errors
C. Unauthorized transactions
D. Natural disasters

Answer: D


9. Which of the following duties should NOT normally be performed by the same employee?

A. Authorization and custody of assets
B. Recording and reconciliation
C. Authorization and recording
D. Custody and authorization

Answer: A


10. A properly designed internal control system does NOT necessarily:

A. Reduce the risk of fraud
B. Improve reliability of information
C. Eliminate all business risks
D. Support achievement of objectives

Answer: C


COSO FRAMEWORK

11. Which of the following is NOT a COSO component?

A. Control environment
B. Information and communication
C. Monitoring activities
D. Strategic planning

Answer: D


12. The COSO control environment does NOT primarily include:

A. Integrity and ethical values
B. Organizational structure
C. Management's philosophy
D. Detailed transaction processing

Answer: D


13. Which is NOT normally included in the COSO risk assessment component?

A. Identification of risks
B. Analysis of risks
C. Consideration of fraud risk
D. Preparation of journal entries

Answer: D


14. Control activities do NOT generally include:

A. Authorizations
B. Verifications
C. Reconciliations
D. Establishing corporate objectives only

Answer: D


15. Which of the following is NOT an example of information and communication?

A. Reporting control deficiencies
B. Communicating policies
C. Sharing relevant information
D. Performing physical inventory counts

Answer: D


16. Monitoring activities do NOT primarily involve:

A. Ongoing evaluations
B. Separate evaluations
C. Identification of deficiencies
D. Daily authorization of every transaction

Answer: D


17. Which COSO component is most directly concerned with identifying and analyzing threats to objectives?

A. Control environment
B. Risk assessment
C. Monitoring
D. Information and communication

Answer: B


18. Which of the following is NOT a principle associated with the COSO control environment?

A. Demonstrates commitment to integrity
B. Exercises board oversight
C. Establishes appropriate structure and authority
D. Guarantees profitability

Answer: D


GOVERNANCE

19. Corporate governance does NOT primarily focus on:

A. Accountability
B. Oversight
C. Ethical conduct
D. Guaranteeing business success

Answer: D


20. The board of directors should NOT:

A. Provide oversight
B. Monitor management
C. Establish governance direction
D. Perform all day-to-day management functions

Answer: D


21. Which is NOT generally a responsibility of the audit committee?

A. Overseeing financial reporting
B. Monitoring internal controls
C. Overseeing external auditors
D. Preparing daily accounting entries

Answer: D


22. An independent board member is generally expected to NOT:

A. Exercise objective judgment
B. Provide oversight
C. Have excessive conflicts of interest
D. Challenge management decisions

Answer: C


23. Which of the following is NOT a major objective of corporate governance?

A. Accountability
B. Transparency
C. Ethical behavior
D. Elimination of all financial risks

Answer: D


24. The audit committee should NOT compromise its independence by:

A. Meeting external auditors
B. Reviewing financial reporting
C. Excessively depending on management without independent evaluation
D. Monitoring internal control

Answer: C


SARBANES-OXLEY ACT (SOX)

25. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) does NOT primarily apply to:

A. Publicly traded companies in the United States
B. Companies subject to SEC reporting requirements
C. Management of covered companies
D. Every private business worldwide

Answer: D


26. Section 302 of SOX does NOT require CEOs and CFOs to certify:

A. Accuracy of financial reports
B. Responsibility for disclosure controls
C. Knowledge of material weaknesses
D. Guaranteed future profitability

Answer: D


27. SOX Section 404 primarily deals with:

A. Executive compensation
B. Internal control over financial reporting
C. Foreign bribery
D. Income tax calculation

Answer: B


28. Section 404 does NOT require management to:

A. Assess internal controls
B. Report on internal control effectiveness
C. Maintain adequate internal control over financial reporting
D. Guarantee that no accounting error exists

Answer: D


29. SOX Section 302 certification is primarily made by:

A. Internal auditor and external auditor
B. CEO and CFO
C. Audit committee chairperson only
D. All accounting employees

Answer: B


30. SOX was enacted primarily in response to concerns about:

A. Corporate financial reporting and governance failures
B. Weather-related business risks
C. International trade restrictions
D. Employee productivity only

Answer: A


31. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of SOX?

A. Improving corporate governance
B. Enhancing financial reporting reliability
C. Strengthening internal controls
D. Eliminating the need for external auditors

Answer: D


32. Under SOX, management is NOT relieved from responsibility for internal control because:

A. External auditors conduct an audit
B. Internal audit performs testing
C. An audit committee exists
D. All of the above

Answer: D


SECTION 302 & SECTION 404

33. Which statement about SOX Section 302 is INCORRECT?

A. CEO and CFO certifications are required
B. Officers accept responsibility for financial reports
C. The section requires management to guarantee future results
D. Disclosure controls are relevant

Answer: C


34. SOX Section 404 focuses primarily on:

A. Internal control over financial reporting
B. Foreign political contributions
C. Personal income taxes
D. Product quality management

Answer: A


35. Which is NOT required for effective internal control assessment under Section 404?

A. Identification of relevant controls
B. Evaluation of control effectiveness
C. Documentation of significant deficiencies
D. Guarantee of zero fraud

Answer: D


36. A material weakness in internal control does NOT mean:

A. There is a reasonable possibility of material misstatement
B. Internal controls have a serious deficiency
C. Management should evaluate the issue
D. Every financial statement amount is incorrect

Answer: D


FCPA – FOREIGN CORRUPT PRACTICES ACT

37. The FCPA does NOT permit:

A. Accurate books and records
B. Adequate internal accounting controls
C. Bribery of foreign officials to obtain business
D. Compliance monitoring

Answer: C


38. The anti-bribery provisions of the FCPA primarily prohibit:

A. Accurate accounting
B. Improper payments to foreign officials for business advantage
C. Internal control testing
D. Employee training

Answer: B


39. Which of the following is NOT a major requirement associated with the FCPA?

A. Maintaining accurate books and records
B. Maintaining adequate internal accounting controls
C. Preventing improper foreign bribery
D. Guaranteeing that every foreign transaction is profitable

Answer: D


40. Under the FCPA, a company should NOT:

A. Maintain accurate records
B. Establish internal accounting controls
C. Conceal improper payments
D. Monitor foreign operations

Answer: C


41. The books and records provisions of the FCPA do NOT encourage:

A. Accurate transaction recording
B. Proper accounting records
C. Concealment of transactions
D. Reasonable internal accounting controls

Answer: C


COBIT

42. COBIT is primarily associated with governance and management of:

A. Information and technology
B. Human resource recruitment only
C. Manufacturing machinery only
D. Personal taxation

Answer: A


43. COBIT does NOT primarily focus on:

A. IT governance
B. Information management
C. Alignment of IT with business objectives
D. Preparing individual tax returns

Answer: D


44. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of IT governance?

A. Value delivery
B. Risk management
C. Resource optimization
D. Guaranteeing that all IT projects succeed

Answer: D


45. COBIT helps an organization EXCEPT:

A. Align IT with business objectives
B. Manage IT-related risks
C. Establish IT governance frameworks
D. Eliminate all cybersecurity threats permanently

Answer: D


46. Which statement is NOT correct regarding COBIT?

A. It supports IT governance
B. It can help manage IT risks
C. It provides a framework for information and technology governance
D. It guarantees that IT systems will never fail

Answer: D


INTEGRATED INTERNAL CONTROL QUESTIONS

47. Which of the following is NOT an effective response to a significant control deficiency?

A. Investigating the root cause
B. Communicating the deficiency to appropriate parties
C. Taking corrective action
D. Ignoring the deficiency because controls cannot be perfect

Answer: D


48. An effective internal control system should NOT be designed solely to:

A. Prevent fraud
B. Support reliable reporting
C. Help achieve organizational objectives
D. Provide reasonable assurance

Answer: A


49. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate control over cash disbursements?

A. Segregating authorization and custody duties
B. Requiring supporting documentation
C. Performing independent bank reconciliations
D. Allowing one employee to authorize, record, and reconcile all payments

Answer: D


50. Which statement about internal control is INCORRECT?

A. Internal control is a process
B. Internal control provides reasonable assurance
C. Internal control is affected by people at all organizational levels
D. Internal control guarantees achievement of all organizational objectives

Answer: D


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Practice Quiz... The content comprehensively tests Corporate Governance, Internal Controls, COSO, COBIT, SOX Sections 302 & 404, and the FCPA.

 



US CMA Part 1/CIA PART,1: Internal Control, Governance, SOX, FCPA, COSO, and COBIT Practice Quiz... The content comprehensively tests Corporate Governance, Internal Controls, COSO, COBIT, SOX Sections 302 & 404, and the FCPA

    

US CMA Part 1 – Internal Control, SOX, FCPA, COSO & COBIT

50 MCQs (Exam-Oriented)

1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of an effective internal control system?

A. Safeguarding assets
B. Ensuring reliable financial reporting
C. Guaranteeing that fraud will never occur
D. Promoting operational efficiency

Answer: 

2. Internal control does NOT provide reasonable assurance regarding:

A. Achievement of objectives
B. Reliability of financial reporting
C. Absolute prevention of all errors
D. Compliance with laws and regulations

Answer: 

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the five components of the COSO Internal Control Framework?

A. Control environment
B. Risk assessment
C. Risk transfer
D. Monitoring activities

Answer:

4. Which is NOT considered a limitation of internal control?

A. Collusion among employees
B. Management override
C. Human error
D. Absolute guarantee of achieving objectives

Answer: 

5. Which of the following is NOT primarily the responsibility of management?

A. Establishing internal controls
B. Maintaining internal controls
C. Designing appropriate controls
D. Providing an external audit opinion

Answer: 

6. Which activity would NOT normally be considered a preventive control?

A. Segregation of duties
B. Password authorization
C. Bank reconciliation
D. Physical access restrictions

Answer:

7. Which of the following is NOT a detective control?

A. Bank reconciliation
B. Physical inventory count
C. Exception reports
D. Employee authorization limits

Answer: 

8. Segregation of duties is designed primarily to reduce the risk of all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Fraud
B. Errors
C. Unauthorized transactions
D. Natural disasters

Answer: 

9. Which of the following duties should NOT normally be performed by the same employee?

A. Authorization and custody of assets
B. Recording and reconciliation
C. Authorization and recording
D. Custody and authorization

Answer:

10. A properly designed internal control system does NOT necessarily:

A. Reduce the risk of fraud
B. Improve reliability of information
C. Eliminate all business risks
D. Support achievement of objectives

Answer: 

COSO FRAMEWORK

11. Which of the following is NOT a COSO component?

A. Control environment
B. Information and communication
C. Monitoring activities
D. Strategic planning

Answer: 

12. The COSO control environment does NOT primarily include:

A. Integrity and ethical values
B. Organizational structure
C. Management's philosophy
D. Detailed transaction processing

Answer:

13. Which is NOT normally included in the COSO risk assessment component?

A. Identification of risks
B. Analysis of risks
C. Consideration of fraud risk
D. Preparation of journal entries

Answer: 

14. Control activities do NOT generally include:

A. Authorizations
B. Verifications
C. Reconciliations
D. Establishing corporate objectives only

Answer: 

15. Which of the following is NOT an example of information and communication?

A. Reporting control deficiencies
B. Communicating policies
C. Sharing relevant information
D. Performing physical inventory counts

Answer: 

16. Monitoring activities do NOT primarily involve:

A. Ongoing evaluations
B. Separate evaluations
C. Identification of deficiencies
D. Daily authorization of every transaction

Answer: 

17. Which COSO component is most directly concerned with identifying and analyzing threats to objectives?

A. Control environment
B. Risk assessment
C. Monitoring
D. Information and communication

Answer: 

18. Which of the following is NOT a principle associated with the COSO control environment?

A. Demonstrates commitment to integrity
B. Exercises board oversight
C. Establishes appropriate structure and authority
D. Guarantees profitability

Answer: 

GOVERNANCE

19. Corporate governance does NOT primarily focus on:

A. Accountability
B. Oversight
C. Ethical conduct
D. Guaranteeing business success

Answer: 

20. The board of directors should NOT:

A. Provide oversight
B. Monitor management
C. Establish governance direction
D. Perform all day-to-day management functions

Answer:

21. Which is NOT generally a responsibility of the audit committee?

A. Overseeing financial reporting
B. Monitoring internal controls
C. Overseeing external auditors
D. Preparing daily accounting entries

Answer: 

22. An independent board member is generally expected to NOT:

A. Exercise objective judgment
B. Provide oversight
C. Have excessive conflicts of interest
D. Challenge management decisions

Answer: 

23. Which of the following is NOT a major objective of corporate governance?

A. Accountability
B. Transparency
C. Ethical behavior
D. Elimination of all financial risks

Answer:

24. The audit committee should NOT compromise its independence by:

A. Meeting external auditors
B. Reviewing financial reporting
C. Excessively depending on management without independent evaluation
D. Monitoring internal control

Answer: 

SARBANES-OXLEY ACT (SOX)

25. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) does NOT primarily apply to:

A. Publicly traded companies in the United States
B. Companies subject to SEC reporting requirements
C. Management of covered companies
D. Every private business worldwide

Answer: 

26. Section 302 of SOX does NOT require CEOs and CFOs to certify:

A. Accuracy of financial reports
B. Responsibility for disclosure controls
C. Knowledge of material weaknesses
D. Guaranteed future profitability

Answer: 

27. SOX Section 404 primarily deals with:

A. Executive compensation
B. Internal control over financial reporting
C. Foreign bribery
D. Income tax calculation

Answer:

28. Section 404 does NOT require management to:

A. Assess internal controls
B. Report on internal control effectiveness
C. Maintain adequate internal control over financial reporting
D. Guarantee that no accounting error exists

Answer: 

29. SOX Section 302 certification is primarily made by:

A. Internal auditor and external auditor
B. CEO and CFO
C. Audit committee chairperson only
D. All accounting employees

Answer: 

30. SOX was enacted primarily in response to concerns about:

A. Corporate financial reporting and governance failures
B. Weather-related business risks
C. International trade restrictions
D. Employee productivity only

Answer: 

31. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of SOX?

A. Improving corporate governance
B. Enhancing financial reporting reliability
C. Strengthening internal controls
D. Eliminating the need for external auditors

Answer: 

32. Under SOX, management is NOT relieved from responsibility for internal control because:

A. External auditors conduct an audit
B. Internal audit performs testing
C. An audit committee exists
D. All of the above

Answer: 

SECTION 302 & SECTION 404

33. Which statement about SOX Section 302 is INCORRECT?

A. CEO and CFO certifications are required
B. Officers accept responsibility for financial reports
C. The section requires management to guarantee future results
D. Disclosure controls are relevant

Answer: 

34. SOX Section 404 focuses primarily on:

A. Internal control over financial reporting
B. Foreign political contributions
C. Personal income taxes
D. Product quality management

Answer: 

35. Which is NOT required for effective internal control assessment under Section 404?

A. Identification of relevant controls
B. Evaluation of control effectiveness
C. Documentation of significant deficiencies
D. Guarantee of zero fraud

Answer: 

36. A material weakness in internal control does NOT mean:

A. There is a reasonable possibility of material misstatement
B. Internal controls have a serious deficiency
C. Management should evaluate the issue
D. Every financial statement amount is incorrect

Answer:

FCPA – FOREIGN CORRUPT PRACTICES ACT

37. The FCPA does NOT permit:

A. Accurate books and records
B. Adequate internal accounting controls
C. Bribery of foreign officials to obtain business
D. Compliance monitoring

Answer:

38. The anti-bribery provisions of the FCPA primarily prohibit:

A. Accurate accounting
B. Improper payments to foreign officials for business advantage
C. Internal control testing
D. Employee training

Answer: 

39. Which of the following is NOT a major requirement associated with the FCPA?

A. Maintaining accurate books and records
B. Maintaining adequate internal accounting controls
C. Preventing improper foreign bribery
D. Guaranteeing that every foreign transaction is profitable

Answer: 

40. Under the FCPA, a company should NOT:

A. Maintain accurate records
B. Establish internal accounting controls
C. Conceal improper payments
D. Monitor foreign operations

Answer: 

41. The books and records provisions of the FCPA do NOT encourage:

A. Accurate transaction recording
B. Proper accounting records
C. Concealment of transactions
D. Reasonable internal accounting controls

Answer:

COBIT

42. COBIT is primarily associated with governance and management of:

A. Information and technology
B. Human resource recruitment only
C. Manufacturing machinery only
D. Personal taxation

Answer:

43. COBIT does NOT primarily focus on:

A. IT governance
B. Information management
C. Alignment of IT with business objectives
D. Preparing individual tax returns

Answer: 

44. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of IT governance?

A. Value delivery
B. Risk management
C. Resource optimization
D. Guaranteeing that all IT projects succeed

Answer: 

45. COBIT helps an organization EXCEPT:

A. Align IT with business objectives
B. Manage IT-related risks
C. Establish IT governance frameworks
D. Eliminate all cybersecurity threats permanently

Answer: 

46. Which statement is NOT correct regarding COBIT?

A. It supports IT governance
B. It can help manage IT risks
C. It provides a framework for information and technology governance
D. It guarantees that IT systems will never fail

Answer:

INTEGRATED INTERNAL CONTROL QUESTIONS

47. Which of the following is NOT an effective response to a significant control deficiency?

A. Investigating the root cause
B. Communicating the deficiency to appropriate parties
C. Taking corrective action
D. Ignoring the deficiency because controls cannot be perfect

Answer: 

48. An effective internal control system should NOT be designed solely to:

A. Prevent fraud
B. Support reliable reporting
C. Help achieve organizational objectives
D. Provide reasonable assurance

Answer:

49. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate control over cash disbursements?

A. Segregating authorization and custody duties
B. Requiring supporting documentation
C. Performing independent bank reconciliations
D. Allowing one employee to authorize, record, and reconcile all payments

Answer:

50. Which statement about internal control is INCORRECT?

A. Internal control is a process
B. Internal control provides reasonable assurance
C. Internal control is affected by people at all organizational levels
D. Internal control guarantees achievement of all organizational objectives

Answer: 

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answers:

US CMA Part 1,CIA Part 1– Internal Control, SOX, FCPA, COSO & COBIT


Wednesday, September 2, 2026

US CMA Part 1 - Answers 100 MCQ , covering all topics , US GAAP Based.

 


US CMA Part 1 - 100 MCQ , covering all topics , US GAAP Based.


*BUDGETARY CONTROL, VARIANCE, PERFORMANCE*


*1. Budgetary control variance analysis - A favorable materials price variance with unfavorable efficiency variance indicates?*

A) Higher price, less usage

B) Lower price but lower quality material bought

C) Standard price error

D) Idle capacity

*Answer: B*


*2. Learning Curve - If 80% learning curve, first unit 100 hrs, second unit will take?*

A) 80 hrs B) 60 hrs C) 100 hrs D) 160 hrs

*Answer: A - 100 x 80%*


*3. Labour efficiency variance is calculated as:*

A) (AH x AR) - (SH x SR) B) (AH - SH) x SR C) (AR - SR) x AH D) (AH - SH) x AR

*Answer: B*


*4. Expected Value - EVPI is?*

A) EV with perfect info - EV without info B) EVPI = Expected cost C) Minimum payoff D) Max regret

*Answer: A*


*5. ROI and RI - Division A ROI 15%, Cost of capital 10%, RI positive means?*

A) ROI < Cost of capital B) Project adds value C) Destroy value D) No decision

*Answer: B*


*6. ROI can be increased by?*

A) Increasing sales with same capital B) Increasing assets C) Decreasing margin D) All

*Answer: A*


*7. Throughput contribution = ?*

A) Sales - Direct Material B) Sales - Variable Cost C) Sales - Fixed Cost D) Sales - All costs

*Answer: A - Only truly variable is material in throughput costing*


*8. Control Charts - Upper and Lower control limits are used for?*

A) Spec limits B) Identify if process in statistical control C) Budget limits D) Audit sampling

*Answer: B*


*9. Supervariable costing treats?*

A) All costs as period B) Only DM as product cost C) DM+DL as product D) DM+DL+VOH

*Answer: B*


*10. Absorption vs Variable costing - When production > sales, profit under absorption is?*

A) Higher than variable B) Lower C) Same D) Zero

*Answer: A - Fixed OH deferred in inventory*


*11. Overapplied overhead means?*

A) Actual OH > Applied OH B) Applied OH > Actual OH C) Actual=Applied D) Budgeted > Actual

*Answer: B*


*12. Normal costing vs Standard costing:*

A) Normal uses actual DM,DL and budgeted OH rate B) Standard uses all budgeted C) Both same D) Normal uses actual OH

*Answer: A*


*13. High-Low method is used to?*

A) Separate mixed cost B) Value bonds C) Calculate EPS D) Audit opinion

*Answer: A*


*14. Cross-subsidization / Overcosting / Undercosting occurs due to?*

A) Single allocation base B) Use of ABC C) Learning curve D) EVPI

*Answer: A - Traditional costing overcosts high volume, undercosts low volume*


*15. Manufacturing vs Non-manufacturing overheads:*

A) MOH is inventoriable, Non-MOH is period B) Both inventoriable C) Both period D) None

*Answer: A*


*COST ALLOCATION, OVERHEADS, DECISION MAKING*


*16. Allocation of overheads - Most appropriate base for machine related OH?*

A) Direct labor hours B) Machine hours C) Direct material cost D) Sales

*Answer: B*


*17. Opportunity cost is?*

A) Sunk cost B) Benefit foregone from next best alternative C) Historical cost D) Fixed cost

*Answer: B*


*18. Economic cost includes?*

A) Only accounting cost B) Explicit + Implicit opportunity cost C) Only sunk D) Only variable

*Answer: B*


*19. Balanced Scorecard perspectives are?*

A) Financial, Customer, Internal Process, Learning & Growth B) ROI, RI, EVA, ABC C) Cost, Quality, Time, Flex D) Audit, Tax, Finance, HR

*Answer: A*


*20. Benchmarking is?*

A) Comparing with best-in-class B) Internal audit C) Standard costing D) Variance analysis

*Answer: A*


*21. Cost of Quality includes?*

A) Prevention, Appraisal, Internal Failure, External Failure B) Only failure C) Only prevention D) Variable cost only

*Answer: A*


*22. Operational Excellence focuses on?*

A) Low cost, efficiency, lean B) Product innovation C) Customer intimacy D) Risk taking

*Answer: A*


*23. Effectiveness vs Efficiency - Effectiveness is?*

A) Doing right things - achieving goals B) Doing things right C) Cost per unit D) ROI

*Answer: A*


*FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING & REPORTING - US GAAP*


*24. Cash Equivalent criteria per US GAAP:*

A) Short term, highly liquid, 3 months or less maturity B) 6 months C) 12 months D) Any liquid asset

*Answer: A*


*25. CFO, CFI, CFF - Interest received under US GAAP is?*

A) CFO B) CFI C) CFF D) Can be CFO or CFI under IFRS, but CFO under GAAP

*Answer: A*


*26. Income received from investment - Dividend received in cash flow US GAAP?*

A) CFO B) CFI C) CFF D) Non-cash

*Answer: A*


*27. Trading investment is classified at?*

A) Amortized cost B) Fair value through Net Income C) Equity method D) Cost

*Answer: B*


*28. Held-to-Maturity (HTM) investment is measured at?*

A) Fair value B) Amortized cost C) Lower of cost or market D) Equity

*Answer: B - Now called Held to collect under ASC 320*


*29. Available-for-Sale (AFS) investment - Now under US GAAP is?*

A) Fair value through OCI - Debt securities B) Amortized cost C) No such category for equity, all equity at FVNI D) Both A & C

*Answer: D - ASU 2016-01 removed AFS for equity*


*30. Investment in Associates 20-50% is accounted by?*

A) Equity method B) Consolidation C) Fair value D) Cost

*Answer: A*


*31. Impairment - Long-lived assets held for use test is?*

A) 2-step: Recoverability (Undiscounted CF vs Carrying), then Fair value B) One step C) Only discounted D) No impairment

*Answer: A*


*32. Wasting assets example:*

A) Mine, Oil reserve B) Building C) Patent D) Cash

*Answer: A - Depleted*


*33. Deferred Tax Asset arises when?*

A) Taxable temporary difference B) Deductible temporary difference / NOL C) Permanent difference D) None

*Answer: B*


*34. Deferred Tax Liability arises when?*

A) Book depreciation faster than tax B) Tax depreciation faster than book C) Warranty expense D) Bad debt

*Answer: B*


*35. Bond Valuation - Bond issued at discount means?*

A) Coupon rate < Market rate B) Coupon > Market C) Coupon = Market D) No relation

*Answer: A*


*36. Bond Amortization - Effective interest method interest expense = ?*

A) Carrying value x Market rate at issue B) Face x Coupon C) Face x Market D) Straight line

*Answer: A*


*37. Limitations of Balance Sheet - Does NOT include?*

A) Current value of most assets B) Off-balance items like operating lease previously C) Historical cost D) It includes everything

*Answer: D - BS doesn't show internally generated intangibles, current values*


*38. Operating Lease disclosure criteria ASC 842 now?*

A) ROU Asset and Lease Liability on BS B) Off balance C) Only footnote D) Only for finance lease

*Answer: A - All leases >12 months on BS*


*39. Revenue Recognition ASC 606 - 5 steps. First step is?*

A) Identify contract B) Identify performance obligation C) Determine price D) Recognize revenue

*Answer: A*


*40. Proforma Income Statement is prepared based on?*

A) Projected sales and assumptions B) Historical only C) Audited data D) Tax return

*Answer: A*


*41. Proforma Balance Sheet - AFN (Additional Funds Needed) formula depends on?*

A) Sales growth, spont. liabilities, profit margin B) Only assets C) Only debt D) Audit opinion

*Answer: A*


*42. Audit Opinion - Unmodified with going concern emphasis is?*

A) Unqualified with explanatory paragraph B) Qualified C) Adverse D) Disclaimer

*Answer: A*


*43. Notes to Accounts are?*

A) Integral part of financials, required for full disclosure B) Optional C) Only for public co D) Not audited

*Answer: A*


*44. EPS - Basic EPS = (Net Income - Preferred Div) / Weighted Avg Common Shares*

A) True B) False C) Includes dilutive D) Uses ending shares

*Answer: A*


*45. Diluted EPS includes?*

A) Convertible bonds, options, RSU if dilutive B) Only common shares C) Preferred only D) All securities anti-dilutive

*Answer: A*


*46. Tangible vs Intangible resources - Tangible is?*

A) Plant, Equipment B) Brand, Patent C) Goodwill D) Knowledge

*Answer: A*


*47. Smart Contract is?*

A) Self-executing code on blockchain B) Paper contract C) Audit contract D) Lease contract

*Answer: A*


*48. Long-lived assets held for sale are measured at?*

A) Lower of Carrying or Fair value less cost to sell, no depreciation B) Depreciated C) Amortized cost D) Fair value through income

*Answer: A*


*49. CFO calculation - Indirect method starts with?*

A) Net Income B) Sales C) Gross Profit D) Cash

*Answer: A*


*ADVANCED TOPICS*


*50. Expected Value - Project payoff 100 with 0.6, 50 with 0.4, EV = ?*

A) 80 B) 100 C) 50 D) 60

*Answer: A - 100_0.6 + 50_0.4*


*51. Internal Control limitations include?*

A) Collusion, Management override, Cost-benefit, Human error B) Perfect assurance C) No limitation D) Only IT issues

*Answer: A*


*52. COSO Principle - 5 components: Control Env, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, Info & Comm, Monitoring. Risk Assessment includes?*

A) Specifying objectives, assessing risks, fraud risk B) Only hiring C) Only reporting D) None

*Answer: A*


*53. Governance - Board's role is?*

A) Oversight, strategy, risk, protects shareholders B) Day to day ops C) Bookkeeping D) Selling

*Answer: A*


*54. Risk Assessment - Inherent risk vs Residual risk:*

A) Inherent before control, Residual after control B) Same C) Residual > Inherent D) None

*Answer: A*


*55. Technology & Data Analytics - Descriptive analytics tells?*

A) What happened B) What will happen C) Why happened D) What to do

*Answer: A*


*56. Predictive analytics uses?*

A) Regression, machine learning to forecast B) Only historical C) Only reporting D) Audit opinion

*Answer: A*


*57. Underapplied overhead adjusted at year end if immaterial goes to?*

A) COGS B) WIP, FG, COGS proportionally C) Inventory only D) OCI

*Answer: A - If material then prorate to WIP, FG, COGS*


*58. Absorption costing treatment of fixed MOH is?*

A) Product cost B) Period cost C) Always expense D) OCI

*Answer: A*


*59. Variable costing fixed MOH is?*

A) Period cost B) Product cost C) Inventory D) Asset

*Answer: A*


*60. Throughput costing is useful for?*

A) Short term bottleneck decisions B) Long term pricing C) External reporting GAAP D) Tax

*Answer: A*


*61. Preview Test / Pre-emptive test - Not in CMA but similar to?*

A) Prior probability revision B) Audit test C) Cash test D) Variance test

*Answer: A - Concept of information before decision*


*62. Overcosting and undercosting - Product diversity causes?*

A) Traditional system undercosts low volume complex products B) Overcosts simple high volume C) Both A&B D) No effect

*Answer: C*


*63. High-Low - Highest 10k units cost 50k, lowest 6k units cost 32k, variable per unit?*

A) $4.5 B) $5 C) $3.2 D) $4

*Answer: A - (50-32)/(10-6)=4.5*


*64. Proforma - Percentage of sales method - If sales increase 10%, A/R will?*

A) Increase 10% if tied to sales B) No change C) Decrease D) Zero

*Answer: A*


*65. Audit Opinion - Disclaimer means?*

A) Auditor unable to form opinion due to scope limitation B) Financials wrong C) Qualified D) Clean

*Answer: A*


*66. Benchmarking types: Internal, Competitive, Functional, Generic*

A) True B) False

*Answer: A*


*67. Balanced Scorecard - ROI is under which perspective?*

A) Financial B) Customer C) Internal D) Learning

*Answer: A*


*68. Cash equivalent does NOT include?*

A) 3-month T-bill B) 6-month bond C) Money market fund D) Commercial paper <3 months

*Answer: B*


*69. Control Chart - If point outside UCL/LCL, it is?*

A) Out of control, special cause investigation needed B) In control C) Ignore D) Common cause

*Answer: A*


*70. CFF includes?*

A) Dividends paid, issuance of stock, debt repayment B) Purchase of asset C) Sale of goods D) Interest paid

*Answer: A*


*71. CFI includes?*

A) Purchase/Sale of PPE, Investments B) Issuance of debt C) Net income D) Salaries

*Answer: A*


*72. Disclosure of operating lease criteria - Short term lease exemption <12 months can be off BS*

A) True under ASC 842 B) False C) Only finance D) Only operating >12 months off

*Answer: A*


*73. Revenue Recognition - Variable consideration is?*

A) Estimated using expected value or most likely amount B) Fixed C) Ignored D) Recognized later only

*Answer: A*


*74. Impairment of Intangible with indefinite life - Test at least?*

A) Annually B) Never C) Every 3 years D) Only when sold

*Answer: A*


*75. DTA valuation allowance is created when?*

A) More likely than not ( >50%) that some DTA not realizable B) Always C) Never D) Only for DTL

*Answer: A*


*76. Income from trading securities - Unrealized gain goes to?*

A) Income Statement B) OCI C) Retained Earnings direct D) No entry

*Answer: A*


*77. Income from AFS debt - Unrealized gain goes to?*

A) OCI B) Net Income C) COGS D) CFO

*Answer: A*


*78. COSO - Principle of Control Environment is?*

A) Integrity, ethics, Board oversight, org structure B) Only IT C) Only audit D) Risk only

*Answer: A*


*79. Notes to accounts include?*

A) Significant accounting policies, contingencies, related party B) Only cash C) Only sales D) Not required

*Answer: A*


*80. Technology - RPA is used for?*

A) Automating repetitive rule-based tasks B) Strategy C) Audit opinion D) Valuation

*Answer: A*


*81. Operation Excellency - Six Sigma focuses on?*

A) Reducing variation, defects <3.4 DPMO B) Increasing defects C) Marketing D) HR only

*Answer: A*


*82. Cost of Quality - External failure cost example?*

A) Warranty, returns, lawsuits B) Inspection C) Training D) Prevention

*Answer: A*


*83. Internal Failure cost is?*

A) Rework, scrap, downtime before shipment B) Warranty C) Training D) Appraisal

*Answer: A*


*84. Appraisal cost is?*

A) Inspection, testing B) Rework C) Warranty D) Training

*Answer: A*


*85. Prevention cost is?*

A) Training, quality planning, preventive maintenance B) Scrap C) Warranty D) Inspection

*Answer: A*


*86. Normal costing - Overapplied OH $5k immaterial, COGS before adjustment 100k, adjusted COGS?*

A) 95k B) 100k C) 105k D) 0

*Answer: A - Applied > Actual, so reduce COGS*


*87. Standard costing - Material price variance isolated at?*

A) Time of purchase B) Time of usage C) Year end D) Never

*Answer: A - For early control*


*88. Deferred Tax - Permanent differences create DTA/DTL?*

A) No B) Yes C) Sometimes D) Always DTL

*Answer: A - Only temporary differences*


*89. Bond - Face 1000, Coupon 8% semiannual, Market 10%, Price will be?*

A) <1000 B) >1000 C) =1000 D) 0

*Answer: A - Discount*


*90. Long-lived assets - Depreciation methods under US GAAP allowed?*

A) Straight line, units of production, DDB, SYD - any systematic rational B) Only SL C) Only tax method D) No depreciation

*Answer: A*


*91. Held to Maturity - If company sells more than insignificant amount, it taints portfolio*

A) True B) False C) No rule D) Only for trading

*Answer: A*


*92. ROI - DuPont formula ROI = Margin x Turnover*

A) True B) False

*Answer: A*


*93. RI = Operating Income - (Investment x Required Rate)*

A) True B) False

*Answer: A*


*94. Governance - SOX requires management assessment of internal controls*

A) True - Section 404 B) False C) Only auditors D) Voluntary

*Answer: A*


*95. Risk assessment - SWOT is tool for?*

A) Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, Threat analysis B) Costing C) Variance D) Audit

*Answer: A*


*96. CFO - Direct method shows?*

A) Cash collected from customers, cash paid to suppliers B) Net income C) Only non-cash D) Equity

*Answer: A*


*97. Cash Flow - Non-cash investing financing disclosed in?*

A) Notes / Separate schedule B) CFO C) No disclosure D) Income statement

*Answer: A*


*98. Smart Contract - In audit, risk is?*

A) Code vulnerability, oracle risk, immutability B) No risk C) Only paper risk D) Credit risk only

*Answer: A*


*99. Proforma - Which is last to be prepared?*

A) Proforma Balance Sheet after Income and Cash Budget B) Income first C) Sales budget first D) Production first

*Answer: A*


*100. Limitation of Balance Sheet - Does not show?*

A) Fair value of company, human resources, internally generated goodwill B) Cash C) Accounts payable D) Debt

*Answer: A*


www.gmsisuccess.in

US CMA Part 1 - 100 MCQ , covering all topics , US GAAP Based.

  


 US CMA Part 1 - 100 MCQ , covering all topics , US GAAP Based.


*BUDGETARY CONTROL, VARIANCE, PERFORMANCE*


*1. Budgetary control variance analysis - A favorable materials price variance with unfavorable efficiency variance indicates?*

A) Higher price, less usage

B) Lower price but lower quality material bought

C) Standard price error

D) Idle capacity

*Answer: 


*2. Learning Curve - If 80% learning curve, first unit 100 hrs, second unit will take?*

A) 80 hrs B) 60 hrs C) 100 hrs D) 160 hrs

*Answer:


*3. Labour efficiency variance is calculated as:*

A) (AH x AR) - (SH x SR) B) (AH - SH) x SR C) (AR - SR) x AH D) (AH - SH) x AR

*Answer: 


*4. Expected Value - EVPI is?*

A) EV with perfect info - EV without info B) EVPI = Expected cost C) Minimum payoff D) Max regret

*Answer:


*5. ROI and RI - Division A ROI 15%, Cost of capital 10%, RI positive means?*

A) ROI < Cost of capital B) Project adds value C) Destroy value D) No decision

*Answer: 


*6. ROI can be increased by?*

A) Increasing sales with same capital B) Increasing assets C) Decreasing margin D) All

*Answer: 


*7. Throughput contribution = ?*

A) Sales - Direct Material B) Sales - Variable Cost C) Sales - Fixed Cost D) Sales - All costs

*Answer:


*8. Control Charts - Upper and Lower control limits are used for?*

A) Spec limits B) Identify if process in statistical control C) Budget limits D) Audit sampling

*Answer: 


*9. Supervariable costing treats?*

A) All costs as period B) Only DM as product cost C) DM+DL as product D) DM+DL+VOH

*Answer: 


*10. Absorption vs Variable costing - When production > sales, profit under absorption is?*

A) Higher than variable B) Lower C) Same D) Zero

*Answer: 


*11. Overapplied overhead means?*

A) Actual OH > Applied OH B) Applied OH > Actual OH C) Actual=Applied D) Budgeted > Actual

*Answer: 


*12. Normal costing vs Standard costing:*

A) Normal uses actual DM,DL and budgeted OH rate B) Standard uses all budgeted C) Both same D) Normal uses actual OH

*Answer: 


*13. High-Low method is used to?*

A) Separate mixed cost B) Value bonds C) Calculate EPS D) Audit opinion

*Answer: 


*14. Cross-subsidization / Overcosting / Undercosting occurs due to?*

A) Single allocation base B) Use of ABC C) Learning curve D) EVPI

*Answer: 


*15. Manufacturing vs Non-manufacturing overheads:*

A) MOH is inventoriable, Non-MOH is period B) Both inventoriable C) Both period D) None

*Answer: 


*COST ALLOCATION, OVERHEADS, DECISION MAKING*


*16. Allocation of overheads - Most appropriate base for machine related OH?*

A) Direct labor hours B) Machine hours C) Direct material cost D) Sales

*Answer:


*17. Opportunity cost is?*

A) Sunk cost B) Benefit foregone from next best alternative C) Historical cost D) Fixed cost

*Answer:


*18. Economic cost includes?*

A) Only accounting cost B) Explicit + Implicit opportunity cost C) Only sunk D) Only variable

*Answer:


*19. Balanced Scorecard perspectives are?*

A) Financial, Customer, Internal Process, Learning & Growth B) ROI, RI, EVA, ABC C) Cost, Quality, Time, Flex D) Audit, Tax, Finance, HR

*Answer:


*20. Benchmarking is?*

A) Comparing with best-in-class B) Internal audit C) Standard costing D) Variance analysis

*Answer: 


*21. Cost of Quality includes?*

A) Prevention, Appraisal, Internal Failure, External Failure B) Only failure C) Only prevention D) Variable cost only

*Answer: 


*22. Operational Excellence focuses on?*

A) Low cost, efficiency, lean B) Product innovation C) Customer intimacy D) Risk taking

*Answer:


*23. Effectiveness vs Efficiency - Effectiveness is?*

A) Doing right things - achieving goals B) Doing things right C) Cost per unit D) ROI

*Answer: 


*FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING & REPORTING - US GAAP*


*24. Cash Equivalent criteria per US GAAP:*

A) Short term, highly liquid, 3 months or less maturity B) 6 months C) 12 months D) Any liquid asset

*Answer:


*25. CFO, CFI, CFF - Interest received under US GAAP is?*

A) CFO B) CFI C) CFF D) Can be CFO or CFI under IFRS, but CFO under GAAP

*Answer: 


*26. Income received from investment - Dividend received in cash flow US GAAP?*

A) CFO B) CFI C) CFF D) Non-cash

*Answer: 


*27. Trading investment is classified at?*

A) Amortized cost B) Fair value through Net Income C) Equity method D) Cost

*Answer: 


*28. Held-to-Maturity (HTM) investment is measured at?*

A) Fair value B) Amortized cost C) Lower of cost or market D) Equity

*Answer: 


*29. Available-for-Sale (AFS) investment - Now under US GAAP is?*

A) Fair value through OCI - Debt securities B) Amortized cost C) No such category for equity, all equity at FVNI D) Both A & C

*Answer: 


*30. Investment in Associates 20-50% is accounted by?*

A) Equity method B) Consolidation C) Fair value D) Cost

*Answer:


*31. Impairment - Long-lived assets held for use test is?*

A) 2-step: Recoverability (Undiscounted CF vs Carrying), then Fair value B) One step C) Only discounted D) No impairment

*Answer:


*32. Wasting assets example:*

A) Mine, Oil reserve B) Building C) Patent D) Cash

*Answer: 


*33. Deferred Tax Asset arises when?*

A) Taxable temporary difference B) Deductible temporary difference / NOL C) Permanent difference D) None

*Answer: 


*34. Deferred Tax Liability arises when?*

A) Book depreciation faster than tax B) Tax depreciation faster than book C) Warranty expense D) Bad debt

*Answer:


*35. Bond Valuation - Bond issued at discount means?*

A) Coupon rate < Market rate B) Coupon > Market C) Coupon = Market D) No relation

*Answer: 


*36. Bond Amortization - Effective interest method interest expense = ?*

A) Carrying value x Market rate at issue B) Face x Coupon C) Face x Market D) Straight line

*Answer:


*37. Limitations of Balance Sheet - Does NOT include?*

A) Current value of most assets B) Off-balance items like operating lease previously C) Historical cost D) It includes everything

*Answer: 


*38. Operating Lease disclosure criteria ASC 842 now?*

A) ROU Asset and Lease Liability on BS B) Off balance C) Only footnote D) Only for finance lease

*Answer: 


*39. Revenue Recognition ASC 606 - 5 steps. First step is?*

A) Identify contract B) Identify performance obligation C) Determine price D) Recognize revenue

*Answer: 


*40. Proforma Income Statement is prepared based on?*

A) Projected sales and assumptions B) Historical only C) Audited data D) Tax return

*Answer: 


*41. Proforma Balance Sheet - AFN (Additional Funds Needed) formula depends on?*

A) Sales growth, spont. liabilities, profit margin B) Only assets C) Only debt D) Audit opinion

*Answer: 


*42. Audit Opinion - Unmodified with going concern emphasis is?*

A) Unqualified with explanatory paragraph B) Qualified C) Adverse D) Disclaimer

*Answer: 


*43. Notes to Accounts are?*

A) Integral part of financials, required for full disclosure B) Optional C) Only for public co D) Not audited

*Answer: 


*44. EPS - Basic EPS = (Net Income - Preferred Div) / Weighted Avg Common Shares*

A) True B) False C) Includes dilutive D) Uses ending shares

*Answer: 


*45. Diluted EPS includes?*

A) Convertible bonds, options, RSU if dilutive B) Only common shares C) Preferred only D) All securities anti-dilutive

*Answer:


*46. Tangible vs Intangible resources - Tangible is?*

A) Plant, Equipment B) Brand, Patent C) Goodwill D) Knowledge

*Answer: 


*47. Smart Contract is?*

A) Self-executing code on blockchain B) Paper contract C) Audit contract D) Lease contract

*Answer: 


*48. Long-lived assets held for sale are measured at?*

A) Lower of Carrying or Fair value less cost to sell, no depreciation B) Depreciated C) Amortized cost D) Fair value through income

*Answer: 


*49. CFO calculation - Indirect method starts with?*

A) Net Income B) Sales C) Gross Profit D) Cash

*Answer: 


*ADVANCED TOPICS*


*50. Expected Value - Project payoff 100 with 0.6, 50 with 0.4, EV = ?*

A) 80 B) 100 C) 50 D) 60

*Answer: 


*51. Internal Control limitations include?*

A) Collusion, Management override, Cost-benefit, Human error B) Perfect assurance C) No limitation D) Only IT issues

*Answer: 


*52. COSO Principle - 5 components: Control Env, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, Info & Comm, Monitoring. Risk Assessment includes?*

A) Specifying objectives, assessing risks, fraud risk B) Only hiring C) Only reporting D) None

*Answer: 


*53. Governance - Board's role is?*

A) Oversight, strategy, risk, protects shareholders B) Day to day ops C) Bookkeeping D) Selling

*Answer:


*54. Risk Assessment - Inherent risk vs Residual risk:*

A) Inherent before control, Residual after control B) Same C) Residual > Inherent D) None

*Answer: 


*55. Technology & Data Analytics - Descriptive analytics tells?*

A) What happened B) What will happen C) Why happened D) What to do

*Answer: 


*56. Predictive analytics uses?*

A) Regression, machine learning to forecast B) Only historical C) Only reporting D) Audit opinion

*Answer: 


*57. Underapplied overhead adjusted at year end if immaterial goes to?*

A) COGS B) WIP, FG, COGS proportionally C) Inventory only D) OCI

*Answer: 


*58. Absorption costing treatment of fixed MOH is?*

A) Product cost B) Period cost C) Always expense D) OCI

*Answer: 


*59. Variable costing fixed MOH is?*

A) Period cost B) Product cost C) Inventory D) Asset

*Answer: 


*60. Throughput costing is useful for?*

A) Short term bottleneck decisions B) Long term pricing C) External reporting GAAP D) Tax

*Answer: 


*61. Preview Test / Pre-emptive test - Not in CMA but similar to?*

A) Prior probability revision B) Audit test C) Cash test D) Variance test

*Answer: 


*62. Overcosting and undercosting - Product diversity causes?*

A) Traditional system undercosts low volume complex products B) Overcosts simple high volume C) Both A&B D) No effect

*Answer: 


*63. High-Low - Highest 10k units cost 50k, lowest 6k units cost 32k, variable per unit?*

A) $4.5 B) $5 C) $3.2 D) $4

*Answer:


*64. Proforma - Percentage of sales method - If sales increase 10%, A/R will?*

A) Increase 10% if tied to sales B) No change C) Decrease D) Zero

*Answer: 


*65. Audit Opinion - Disclaimer means?*

A) Auditor unable to form opinion due to scope limitation B) Financials wrong C) Qualified D) Clean

*Answer:


*66. Benchmarking types: Internal, Competitive, Functional, Generic*

A) True B) False

*Answer: 


*67. Balanced Scorecard - ROI is under which perspective?*

A) Financial B) Customer C) Internal D) Learning

*Answer: 


*68. Cash equivalent does NOT include?*

A) 3-month T-bill B) 6-month bond C) Money market fund D) Commercial paper <3 months

*Answer: 


*69. Control Chart - If point outside UCL/LCL, it is?*

A) Out of control, special cause investigation needed B) In control C) Ignore D) Common cause

*Answer:


*70. CFF includes?*

A) Dividends paid, issuance of stock, debt repayment B) Purchase of asset C) Sale of goods D) Interest paid

*Answer:


*71. CFI includes?*

A) Purchase/Sale of PPE, Investments B) Issuance of debt C) Net income D) Salaries

*Answer: 


*72. Disclosure of operating lease criteria - Short term lease exemption <12 months can be off BS*

A) True under ASC 842 B) False C) Only finance D) Only operating >12 months off

*Answer: 


*73. Revenue Recognition - Variable consideration is?*

A) Estimated using expected value or most likely amount B) Fixed C) Ignored D) Recognized later only

*Answer: 


*74. Impairment of Intangible with indefinite life - Test at least?*

A) Annually B) Never C) Every 3 years D) Only when sold

*Answer:


*75. DTA valuation allowance is created when?*

A) More likely than not ( >50%) that some DTA not realizable B) Always C) Never D) Only for DTL

*Answer: 


*76. Income from trading securities - Unrealized gain goes to?*

A) Income Statement B) OCI C) Retained Earnings direct D) No entry

*Answer: 


*77. Income from AFS debt - Unrealized gain goes to?*

A) OCI B) Net Income C) COGS D) CFO

*Answer: 


*78. COSO - Principle of Control Environment is?*

A) Integrity, ethics, Board oversight, org structure B) Only IT C) Only audit D) Risk only

*Answer: 


*79. Notes to accounts include?*

A) Significant accounting policies, contingencies, related party B) Only cash C) Only sales D) Not required

*Answer: 


*80. Technology - RPA is used for?*

A) Automating repetitive rule-based tasks B) Strategy C) Audit opinion D) Valuation

*Answer:


*81. Operation Excellency - Six Sigma focuses on?*

A) Reducing variation, defects <3.4 DPMO B) Increasing defects C) Marketing D) HR only

*Answer: 


*82. Cost of Quality - External failure cost example?*

A) Warranty, returns, lawsuits B) Inspection C) Training D) Prevention

*Answer: 


*83. Internal Failure cost is?*

A) Rework, scrap, downtime before shipment B) Warranty C) Training D) Appraisal

*Answer:


*84. Appraisal cost is?*

A) Inspection, testing B) Rework C) Warranty D) Training

*Answer:


*85. Prevention cost is?*

A) Training, quality planning, preventive maintenance B) Scrap C) Warranty D) Inspection

*Answer: 


*86. Normal costing - Overapplied OH $5k immaterial, COGS before adjustment 100k, adjusted COGS?*

A) 95k B) 100k C) 105k D) 0

*Answer: 


*87. Standard costing - Material price variance isolated at?*

A) Time of purchase B) Time of usage C) Year end D) Never

*Answer:


*88. Deferred Tax - Permanent differences create DTA/DTL?*

A) No B) Yes C) Sometimes D) Always DTL

*Answer:


*89. Bond - Face 1000, Coupon 8% semiannual, Market 10%, Price will be?*

A) <1000 B) >1000 C) =1000 D) 0

*Answer:


*90. Long-lived assets - Depreciation methods under US GAAP allowed?*

A) Straight line, units of production, DDB, SYD - any systematic rational B) Only SL C) Only tax method D) No depreciation

*Answer: 


*91. Held to Maturity - If company sells more than insignificant amount, it taints portfolio*

A) True B) False C) No rule D) Only for trading

*Answer: 


*92. ROI - DuPont formula ROI = Margin x Turnover*

A) True B) False

*Answer: 


*93. RI = Operating Income - (Investment x Required Rate)*

A) True B) False

*Answer: 


*94. Governance - SOX requires management assessment of internal controls*

A) True - Section 404 B) False C) Only auditors D) Voluntary

*Answer: 


*95. Risk assessment - SWOT is tool for?*

A) Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, Threat analysis B) Costing C) Variance D) Audit

*Answer:


*96. CFO - Direct method shows?*

A) Cash collected from customers, cash paid to suppliers B) Net income C) Only non-cash D) Equity

*Answer: 


*97. Cash Flow - Non-cash investing financing disclosed in?*

A) Notes / Separate schedule B) CFO C) No disclosure D) Income statement

*Answer: 


*98. Smart Contract - In audit, risk is?*

A) Code vulnerability, oracle risk, immutability B) No risk C) Only paper risk D) Credit risk only

*Answer: 


*99. Proforma - Which is last to be prepared?*

A) Proforma Balance Sheet after Income and Cash Budget B) Income first C) Sales budget first D) Production first

*Answer: 


*100. Limitation of Balance Sheet - Does not show?*

A) Fair value of company, human resources, internally generated goodwill B) Cash C) Accounts payable D) Debt

*Answer:


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