Thursday, December 19, 2024

Guideline for attempting the CIA Part 1 exam confidently!

Guideline for attempting the CIA Part 1 exam confidently:


Pre-Exam Preparation

Before starting the exam, make sure you:


1. *Read the instructions carefully*: Understand the exam format, time limit, and any specific instructions.

2. *Plan your time*: Allocate time for each section and question based on their complexity and your familiarity with the topic.

3. *Stay calm and focused*: Take deep breaths, and try to relax.


First Hour Strategy (40+ MCQ)

During the first hour, focus on attempting simple and understandable questions first:


1. *Quickly scan the questions*: Identify questions that are straightforward and easy to understand.

2. *Attempt 40+ MCQ*: Focus on completing at least 40 simple questions within the first hour.

3. *Use the process of elimination*: Eliminate obviously incorrect options to increase your chances of selecting the correct answer.

4. *Mark questions for review*: If you're unsure about a question, mark it for review and come back to it later.


Second and Third Hour(starting )Strategy

After completing the simple questions, move on to more complex questions:


1. *Tackle moderate-level questions*: Attempt questions that require more analysis and critical thinking.

2. *Use your knowledge and experience*: Apply your knowledge of internal auditing concepts, standards, and best practices to answer questions.

3. *Manage your time effectively*: Allocate time for each question based on its complexity and your familiarity with the topic.


Final 30 Minutes Strategy

During the final 30 minutes, focus on:


1. *Reviewing marked questions*: Go back to questions you marked for review and attempt to answer them.

2. *Checking your work*: Review your answers to ensure you've selected the correct option.

3. *Making educated guesses*: If you're unsure about a question, make an educated guess based on your knowledge and experience.


Additional Tips

1. *Stay focused and calm*: Take breaks if needed, and try to relax.

2. *Use the exam software effectively*: Familiarize yourself with the exam software and use its features to your advantage.

3. *Don't get stuck on a question*: Move on to the next question if you're unsure or stuck.


By following these guidelines and strategies, you'll be well-prepared to tackle the CIA Part 1 exam and achieve a high score.

Students... feel free 🆓 to discuss with me.. share your views, suggestion, queries here ✍️ in comment box.. Sure i will guide you respond you within shortest possible time.

Best wishes 🍀 

Prof Mahaley

Head Gmsisuccess Mumbai Tel 9773464206

www.gmsisucces.in


Wednesday, December 18, 2024

Interpreting MCQ questions in the Certified Internal Auditor (CIA) Part 1 exam can be challenging. Here are some tips to help you prepare and improve your ability to interpret MCQ questions:

 Interpreting MCQ questions in the Certified Internal Auditor (CIA) Part 1 exam can be challenging. Here are some tips to help you prepare and improve your ability to interpret MCQ questions:


Understand the Exam Format and Content

Familiarize yourself with the exam format, content, and question types. The CIA Part 1 exam consists of 125 MCQs(2.5 hours or 150 minutes), covering topics such as IPPF ,internal audit standards, IIA ethics, and internal control systems with COSO COBIT,Risk Management etc 


✍️ Develop Your Analytical and Logical Reasoning Skills .....Refer GMSI Article (How to interpret MCQ Questions ⁉️)

CIA exam questions often require analytical and logical reasoning skills. Practice breaking down complex questions into simpler components, identifying key words and phrases, and evaluating the relationships between different pieces of information.


✍️ Focus on Key Topics and Concepts

Identify the most critical topics and concepts in the CIA Part 1 exam, such as:

- Internal audit standards (e.g., IPPF, IIA Standards)

- Internal audit ethics (e.g., Code of Ethics, independence and Objectivity, Integrity,confidentiality)

- COSO and COBIT frameworks

- Internal control systems (e.g., control environment, risk assessment plus Accounting Information System etc) #Refer GMSI Article for AIS,Business acumen Corporate culture etc

Concentrate your studies on these areas, and make sure you understand the key concepts, principles, and relationships.


✍️ Practice with Sample Questions and Case Studies..Refer GMSI Pre Exam Test Series Basic & Challenging mocktest,Prof Mahaleys thorough performance evaluation report sure help you to know strong &weak areas topic subtopic and also MCQ Questions ⁉️ interpretation tactics & tricks..discussed during lecture.

Utilize sample questions, case studies, and practice exams to help you develop your analytical and logical reasoning skills. This will also help you become familiar with the exam format and question types.

Some recommended resources include:

- IIA Learning System

- CIA Exam Prep Courses (e.g., GMSI Audio visual recorded lecture with pdf notes)

- Practice exams and sample questions on the IIA website plus GMSI Pre Exam Test Series Basic & Challenging.


✍️ Improve Your Reading Comprehension and Speed

CIA exam questions often require you to read and understand complex information quickly. Practice improving your reading comprehension and speed by:

- Reading technical articles and books on internal auditing and related topics,also refer GMSI Article for CIA students 

- Taking practice exams and quizzes under timed conditions

- Using techniques such as skimming, scanning, and note-taking to improve your reading efficiency


✍️ Correlate Key Words and Phrases with Option Answers.. Read regularly GMSI Article & Attend GMSI live lecture in this regard..what & how to focus..

When reading MCQ questions, identify key words and phrases that can help you correlate with the option answers. Look for:

- Action verbs (e.g., "evaluate," "assess," "recommend" &  many)

- Technical terms and concepts (e.g., "COSO," "COBIT," "internal control" &  many)

- Descriptive phrases (e.g., "in accordance with," "consistent with," "in compliance with" & many)

Use these key words and phrases to help you eliminate incorrect options and select the correct answer.


✍️ Manage Your Time Effectively

During the exam, manage your time effectively by:

- Allocating time for each question based on its complexity and your familiarity with the topic

- Using a systematic approach to read and answer questions (e.g., read the question, identify key words and phrases, eliminate incorrect options, select the correct answer)

- Avoiding spending too much time on a single question; move on to the next question and come back to it later if necessary

I hope this helps you to build up 💯 exam preparation streregy for exam success.

In next article I will guide..how to cope with MCQ Questions ⁉️ easily during the exam.

Thanks students for responding.. please write ✍️ your comments, suggestion here or text me on 9773464206 or email ✉️ gmsisuccess1@gmail.com

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Commprehensive strategy to crack 400+ scale in Part 1 and Part 2 of the US CMA exam!

Commprehensive strategy to crack 400+ scale in Part 1 and Part 2 of the US CMA exam!


1. *Familiarize yourself with concepts*: Understand all topics, subtopics, terms, and phrases.

2. *Parallel learning and practice*: Solve MCQs, mock tests, and essay-based questions while studying.

3. *Active learning during lectures*: Take notes on important terms, sentences, and logical steps.

4. *Ask questions and discuss*: Clarify doubts with teachers, follow responsive students, and refer to their solutions.

5. *Use IMA study materials*: Utilize the Student Support Guide and other resources provided by IMA.

6. *Build confidence through lectures*: Participate in Q&A sessions and online/offline lectures to build exam competency.

7. *Complete mock tests within time limits*: Finish mock tests before the allotted time to simulate the actual exam experience.

8. *Memorize key concepts and logical steps*: Focus on important topics like variance analysis, budgetary control, and joint cost allocation.

9. *Simulate the actual exam experience*: Take comprehensive 3-hour mock tests before booking the actual exam.

10. *Stay positive and aggressive*: Approach the exam with confidence and a strategic mindset.


Tuesday, December 17, 2024

MCQ questions ⁉️ on Independence of the Internal Audit Activity

 Solve this 15 MCQ mocktest,submit your answers


Independence of the Internal Audit Activity:


1- Independence permits internal auditors to render impartial and unbiased judgments. The best way to achieve independence is through


A. Supervision within the organization.


B. Organizational knowledge and skills.


C. Individual knowledge and skills.


D. A dual-reporting relationship.


 


2- Which of the following facts, by themselves, could contribute to a lack of independence of the internal


audit activity?


1. The CEO accused the new auditor of not operating “in the best interests of the


organization.”


2. The majority of audit committee members come from within the organization.


3. The internal audit activity’s charter has not been approved by the board.


A. 1 only.


B. 2 and 3 only.


C. 2 only.


D. 1, 2, and 3


 


3- Which action is not consistent with functional reporting?


A. The board should have the final authority to approve the internal audit risk assessment.


B. The board should approve the CAE’s performance evaluation.


C. Organizational independence is effectively achieved when the CAE reports functionally to the


board.


D. The CAE should meet with the board, with management present, to reinforce the independence


of the internal audit activity.


 


4- According to the International Professional Practices Framework, the independence of the internal


audit activity is achieved through


A. Staffing and supervision.


B. Organizational status and objectivity.


C. Continuing professional development and due professional care.


D. Human relations and communications.


 


5- The board is most likely to participate in approving


A. Staff promotions and salary increases.


B. Engagement communication observations, conclusions, and recommendations.


C. Appointment of the chief audit executive.


D. Engagement work programs.


 


6- The organizational level to which the internal audit activity reports


A. Requires only the board’s annual approval of the engagement work schedule, staffing plan, and


financial budget.


B. Is best when reporting is only made to the board of directors.


C. Must be sufficient to permit the accomplishment of the activity’s responsibilities.


D. Is guaranteed when the charter specifically defines the activity’s independence.


 


7- An external quality assessment team was evaluating the independence of an internal audit activity.


The internal audit activity performs engagements concerning all of the elements included in its scope.


Which of the following reporting responsibilities is most likely to threaten the internal audit activity’s


independence? Reporting to the


A. President.


B. Chief financial officer.


C. Executive vice president.


D. Audit committee.


8- In some cultures, and organizations, managers insist that an internal audit activity is not needed to


provide a critical assessment of the organization’s operations. This kind of management attitude will


most probably have an adverse effect on the internal audit activity’s


A. Operating budget variance.


B. Effectiveness.


C. Performance appraisals.


D. Policies and procedures.


 


9- The reporting structure that is most likely to allow the internal audit activity to accomplish its


responsibilities is to report administratively to the


A. Chief executive officer and functionally to the board of directors.


B. Board and functionally to the chief executive officer.


C. Chief executive officer and functionally to the external auditor.


D. Controller and functionally to the chief financial officer.


 


10- When evaluating the independence of an internal audit activity, a quality assurance review team


performing an external assessment considers several factors. Which of the following factors has


the least amount of influence when judging an internal audit activity’s independence?


A. Relationship between engagement records and engagement communications.


B. The extent of internal auditor training in communications skills.


C. Impartial and unbiased judgments.


D. Criteria used in making internal auditors’ assignments.


 


11- Which of the following describes the chief audit executive’s optimal reporting line to enhance the


independence of the internal audit activity?


A. Administrative reporting to the chief financial officer.


B. Administrative reporting to the board.


C. Functional and administrative reporting to the president of the organization.


D. Functional reporting to the audit committee.


 


12- A charter is being drafted for a newly formed internal audit activity. Which of the following best


describes an appropriate organizational position to be incorporated into the charter?


A. The chief audit executive is a member of the board.


B. The chief audit executive is a staff officer reporting to the chief financial officer.


C. The chief audit executive reports to an administrative vice president.


D. The chief audit executive reports to the chief executive officer but has access to the board.


 


13- A formal document (charter) approved by the board that defines the internal audit activity’s


purpose, authority, and responsibility enhances its


A. Proficiency.


B. Independence.


C. Relationship with management.


D. Exercise of due professional care.


 


14- To avoid being the apparent cause of conflict between an organization’s senior management


and the board, the chief audit executive should


A. Strengthen the independence of the internal audit activity through organizational position.


B. Discuss all reports to senior management with the board first.


C. Communicate all engagement results to both senior management and the board.


D. Request board approval of policies that include internal audit activity relationships with the


board.


15- An organization is in the process of establishing its new internal audit activity. The controller has


no previous experience with internal auditors. Due to this lack of experience, the controller advised


the applicants that the CAE will be reporting to the external auditors. However, the new chief audit


executive will have free access to the controller to report anything important. The controller will then


convey the CAE’s concerns to the board of directors. The internal audit activity will


A. Not be independent because the organization did not specify that the applicants must be certified


internal auditors.


B. Not be independent because the CAE reports to the external auditors.


C. Be independent because the CAE has direct access to the board.


D. Not be independent because the controller has no experience with internal auditors.


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Pre Exam Test Series 4 CMA Part 1

 PRE EXAM TEST 4 DT 17/12/24 TOTAL QUESTIONS 35(included 1 essay based question) & TIME ALLOWED 60 MINUTES: questions are examinable & challenging .

Q1 Rainbow Inc. recently appointed Margaret Joyce as vice president of finance and asked her to design a new budgeting system. Joyce has changed to a monthly budgeting system by dividing the company’s annual budget by twelve. Joyce then prepared monthly budgets for each department and asked the managers to submit monthly reports comparing actual to budget. A sample monthly report for Department A is shown below

This monthly budget has been imposed from the top and will create behavior problems.

All of the following are causes of such problems except

a. the use of a flexible budget rather than a fixed budget.

b. top management authoritarian attitude toward the budget process.

c. the inclusion of noncontrollable costs such as depreciation.

d. the lack of consideration for factors such as seasonality

Q2

Q3 Albright Company uses the sum-of-the-years’ digits method of depreciation. On January 1, the company purchased a machine for $50,000, with an estimated life of 5 years and no residual value. Depreciation for the first year would be

a. $10,000.

b. $15,000.

c. $16,667.

d. $20,000.

Q4 Lakeside Electric purchased a truck for $38,600 to transport equipment to various job sites. For this purpose, storage bins were welded to the truck bed at a cost of $1,700.Doug Lombardi, controller of Lakeside, estimates the useful life of the truck to be 5 years and the residual value to be $1,000. Using the double-declining-balance method, the depreciation expense on the truck for its second year of use is

a. $9,024.

b. $9,264.

c. $9,432.

d. $9,672.

Q5 Which one of the following methods of depreciation will result in the lowest reported net income in the early life of a depreciable asset?

a. Composite depreciation method.

b. Group depreciation method.

c. Straight-line depreciation method.

d. Sum-of-the-years’ digits depreciation method.

Q6 Hansen Inc. purchased a patent at the beginning of Year 1 for $22,100 that was to be amortized over 17 years. On July 1 of Year 8, Hansen incurred legal costs of $11,400 to successfully defend the patent. The amount of amortization expense that Hansen should record for Year 8 is

a. $2,500.

b. $1,971.

c. $1,900.

d. $1,300

Q7 A liability arising from a loss contingency should be recorded if the

a. amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated.

b. contingent future events have a reasonably possible chance of occurring.

c. contingent future events have a reasonably possible chance of occurring and the

amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated.

d. contingent future events will probably occur and the amount of the loss can be

reasonably estimated

Q8

*****$

Q9 On January 1, Evangel Company issued 9% bonds in the face amount of $100,000, that mature in five years. The bonds were issued for $96,207 to yield 10%, resulting in a bond discount of $3,793. Evangel uses the effective interest method of amortizing bond discount. Interest on the bonds is payable annually on December 31. What is the amount of interest to be paid at the end of the first year?

*****$

Q10 On January 1, Evangel Company issued 9% bonds in the face amount of $100,000, that mature in five years. The bonds were issued for $96,207 to yield 10%, resulting in a bond discount of $3,793. Evangel uses the effective interest method of amortizing bond discount. Interest is payable annually on December 31. What is the amount of Evangel’s unamortized bond discount at the end of the first year?

*****$

Q11 Which one of the following would most likely cause earnings per share to increase?

a. Issuing stock options when the option price is greater than the market price.

b. Postponing the declaration of dividends.

c. Selling shares of stock at a price greater than the par value.

d. Purchasing treasury stock.

Q12 Bertram Company had a balance of $100,000 in Retained Earnings at the beginning of the year and $125,000 at the end of the year. Net income for this time period was $40,000. Bertram’s Statement of Financial Position indicated that Dividends Payable had decreased by $5,000 throughout the year, despite the fact that both cash dividends and a stock dividend were declared. The amount of the stock dividend was $8,000. When preparing its Statement of Cash Flows for the year, Bertram should show Cash Paid for Dividends as ****$

Q13 A segment is considered significant if its sales, profits, or assets are

a. 5% or more of the respective total company amounts.

b. 10% or more of the respective total company amounts.

c. 15% or more of the respective total company amounts.

d. 51% or more of the respective total company amounts

Q14 A search for unrecorded liabilities provides support for management’s financial statement assertion of

a. existence or occurrence.

b. completeness.

c. rights and obligations.

d. valuation or allocation.

Q15 The annual report would include all of the following information except

a. a description of accounting policies.

b. the auditor’s policy recommendations.

c. management’s discussion and analysis.

d. the number of shares of stock outstanding.

Q16 Securities held primarily for sale in the near term to generate income on short-term price differences are known as

a. available-for-sale securities.

b. equity securities.

c. held-to-maturity securities.

d. trading securities.

Q17 If a company uses off-balance-sheet financing, assets have been acquired

a. for cash.

b. with operating leases.

c. with financing leases.

d. with a line of credit.

Q18

a. a noncurrent Deferred Tax Liability of $40,000.

b. a noncurrent Deferred Tax Liability of $90,000 and a noncurrent Deferred Tax

Asset of $50,000.

c. a current Deferred Tax Asset of $10,000 and a noncurrent Deferred Tax Liability

of $50,000.

d. a current Deferred Tax Asset of $20,000, a noncurrent Deferred Tax Asset of

$30,000, a current Deferred Tax Liability of $10,000, and a noncurrent Deferred

Tax Liability of $80,000

Q19 All of the following are methods used by businesses to identify problems with product quality except

a. statistical process control charts.

b. theory of constraints diagrams.

c. Pareto (frequency) diagrams.

d. cause-and-effect diagrams

Q20 Which one of the following statements about a balanced scorecard is incorrect?

a. It seeks to address the problems associated with traditional financial measures

used to assess performance.

b. The notion of value chain analysis plays a major role in the drawing up of a

balanced scorecard.

c. It relies on the perception of the users with regard to service provided.

d. It is directly derived from the scientific management theories

Q21 With respect to a firm’s transfer pricing policy, an advantage of using a dual pricing arrangement is that it

a. provides an incentive for the supplying subunit to control costs.

b. exposes the supplying subunit to the discipline of market prices.

c. promotes goal congruence between the supplying and buying subunits of the firm.

d. simplifies tax calculations when the buying and supplying subunits are taxed in

different jurisdictions

Q22 Morrison's Plastics Division, a profit center, sells its products to external customers as well as to other internal profit centers. Which one of the following circumstances would justify the Plastics Division selling a product internally to another profit center at a price that is below the market-based transfer price?

a. The buying unit has excess capacity.

b. The selling unit is operating at full capacity.

c. Routine sales commissions and collection costs would be avoided.

d. The profit centers' managers are evaluated on the basis of unit operating income

Q23 Happy Time Industries uses segment reporting for all of its decentralized divisions. It has several products that are transferred from one division to other divisions. Happy Time wants to motivate the manager of the selling division to produce efficiently.

Assuming the following methods are available, the optimal transfer pricing method

should be a

a. cost-based transfer price that uses actual amounts.

b. cost-based transfer price that uses budgeted amounts.

c. variable cost-based transfer price that uses actual amounts.

d. market-based transfer price.

Q24 Vincent Hospital has installed a new computer system. The system was designed and constructed based on the anticipated number of hours of usage required by the various hospital departments according to projections made by the departmental managers.

Virtually all of the operating costs of the system are fixed. What would be the most

systematic and rational manner in which to allocate the new computer system costs to the various hospital departments?

a. To each department equally.

b. By the anticipated number of hours of usage.

c. By actual usage by each department.

d. By the revenue generated in each department

Q25 During the month of May, Tyler Company experienced a significant unfavorable material efficiency variance in the production of its single product at one of Tyler’s plants. Which one of the following reasons would be least likely to explain why the unfavourable variance arose?

a. Inferior materials were purchased.

b. Actual production was lower than planned production.

c. Workers used were less-skilled than expected.

d. Replacement production equipment had just been installed.

Q26 Howard Company produces and sells replacement parts for cotton processing equipment. Which one of the following cost variances are least likely to be controllable by Howard’s production manager?

a. Variable overhead spending variance.

b. Labor efficiency variance.

c. Material quantity variance.

d. Fixed overhead production volume variance

Q27 A company has a fixed overhead volume variance that is $10,000 unfavorable. The most likely cause for this variance is that

a. the production supervisory salaries were greater than planned.

b. the production supervisory salaries were less than planned.

c. more was produced than planned.

d. less was produced than planned

Q28 Highlight Inc. uses a standard cost system and applies factory overhead to products on the basis of direct labor hours. If the firm recently reported a favorable direct labor efficiency variance, then the

a. variable overhead spending variance must be favorable.

b. variable overhead efficiency variance must be favorable.

c. fixed overhead volume variance must be unfavorable.

d. direct labor rate variance must be unfavorable.

Q29 Richter Company has an unfavorable materials efficiency (usage) variance for a

particular month. Which one of the following is least likely to be the cause of this

variance?

a. Inadequate training of the direct labor employees.

b. Poor performance of the shipping employees.

c. Poor design of the production process or product.

d. Poor quality of the raw materials

Q30 Which one of the following will allow a better use of standard costs and variance analysis to help improve managerial decision-making?

a. Set standards with the help of line personnel directly involved in the process.

b. Do not differentiate between variable and fixed overhead in calculating overhead

variances.

c. Use standard costs only for inventory valuation.

d. Use the prior year’s average actual cost as the current year’s standard

Q31 The most commonly used method for calculating and reporting a company’s net cash flow from operating activities on its statement of cash flows is the

a. direct method.

b. indirect method.

c. single-step method.

d. multiple-step method.

Q32 When a fixed asset is sold for less than book value, which one of the following will decrease?

a. Total current assets.

b. Current ratio.

c. Net profit.

d. Net working capital

Q33skipped 


Q34 A budgeting approach that requires a manager to justify the entire budget for each budget period is known as

a. performance budgeting.

b. program budgeting.

c. zero-base budgeting.

d. incremental budgeting



CASE STUDY/ESSAY SECTION: A OR B

READ PARA BELOW AND ATTEMPT QUESTIONS:

A

CDE is a manufacturer of almost 100 hundred different automotive components that are

sold in both large and small quantities on a just-in-time (JIT) basis to the major vehicle

assemblers. Business is highly competitive and price sensitive. The company is listed on the

stock exchange but CDE’s share performance has not matched that of its main competitors.

CDE’s management accounting system uses a manufacturing resource planning (MRP II)

system to control production scheduling, inventory movements and inventory control, and

labour and machine utilisation. The accounting department carries out a detailed annual

budgeting exercise, determines standard costs for labour and materials, and allocates

production overhead on the basis of machine utilisation. Strict accounting controls over

labour and material costs are managed by the detailed recording of operator and machine

timesheets and raw material movements, and by calculating and investigating all significant

variances.

While the information from the MRP II system is useful to management, there is an absence

of integrated data about customer requirements and suppliers. Some information is

contained within spreadsheets and databases held by the Sales and Purchasing

departments respectively. One result of this lack of integration is that inventories are higher

than they should be in a JIT environment.

The managers of CDE (representing functional areas of sales, production, purchasing,

finance and administration) believe that, while costs are strictly controlled, the cost of the

accounting department is excessive and significant savings need to be made, even at the

expense of data accuracy. Managers believe that there may not be optimum use of the

production capacity to generate profits and cash flow and improve shareholder value. CDE’s

management wants to carry out sensitivity and other analyses of strategic alternatives, but

this is difficult when the existing management accounting system is focused on control

rather than on decision support.

QUESTIONS:

(a) Outline the different types of information system available to manufacturing firms

like CDE.

(b) Recommend with reasons the information system that would be appropriate to

CDE’s needs.

B

Glam Co is a hairdressing salon which provides both ‘cuts’ and ‘treatments’ to clients. All

cuts and treatments at the salon are carried out by one of the salon’s three senior stylists.

The salon also has two salon assistants and two junior stylists.

Every customer attending the salon is first seen by a salon assistant, who washes their hair;

next, by a senior stylist, who cuts or treats the hair depending on which service the

customer wants; then finally, a junior stylist who dries their hair. The average length of time

spent with each member of staff is as follows:

The salon is open for eight hours each day for six days per week. It is only closed for two

weeks each year. Staff salaries are $40,000 each year for senior stylists, $28,000 each year

for junior stylists and $12,000 each year for the assistants. The cost of cleaning products

applied when washing the hair is $0.60 per client. The cost of all additional products applied

during a ‘treatment’ is $7.40 per client. Other salon costs (excluding labour and raw

materials) amount to $106,400 each year.

Glam Co charges $60 for each cut and $110 for each treatment.

The senior stylists’ time has been correctly identified as the bottleneck activity.

QUESTIONS :

(a) Briefly explain why the senior stylists’ time has been described as the ‘bottleneck

activity’, supporting your answer with calculations. (4 marks)

(b) Calculate the throughput accounting ratio (TPAR) for ‘cuts’ and the TPAR for

‘treatments’ assuming the bottleneck activity is fully utilised. (6 marks)

(Total: 10 marks)

All the Best

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