Showing posts with label Financial statements. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Financial statements. Show all posts

Friday, February 27, 2026

Mocktest on Financial statement Corporate Reporting


 CMA Part 1 MCQs (Financial Reporting & Analysis – US GAAP)

Section A

MCQs – CMA PART 1

 

1.

A company reports accelerated tax depreciation and straight-line book depreciation. This will MOST likely result in:

A. Deferred Tax Asset

B. Deferred Tax Liability

C. Permanent Difference

D. No tax effect

Answer: 

 

2.

All of the following create Deferred Tax Assets EXCEPT:

A. Warranty accrual

B. Unearned revenue (taxed when received)

C. Installment sales for tax

D. Litigation accrual probable

Answer: 

 

3.

If an asset fails recoverability test under US GAAP, impairment loss equals:

A. Carrying value − Undiscounted CF

B. Undiscounted CF − Fair value

C. Carrying value − Fair value

D. Fair value − Carrying value

Answer: 

 

4.

Which is LEAST likely included in OCI?

A. Pension adjustments

B. Unrealized gain on AFS securities

C. Foreign currency translation

D. Gain on sale of PPE

Answer: 

 

5.

Finance lease classification requires meeting:

A. All criteria

B. Majority of criteria

C. At least one criterion

D. PV ≥ 75% only

Answer: 

 

6.

Factoring without recourse should be accounted for as:

A. Secured borrowing

B. Liability recognition

C. Sale of receivable

D. Deferred revenue

Answer: 

 

7.

Lower of Cost or Market floor equals:

A. NRV

B. Replacement cost

C. NRV − Normal profit margin

D. Historical cost

Answer: 

 

8.

Change in depreciation method is treated as:

A. Prior period adjustment

B. Change in estimate

C. Change in principle retrospective

D. Error correction

Answer: 

 

9.

Discontinued operations are reported:

A. Gross of tax

B. Before extraordinary items

C. Net of tax

D. In OCI

Answer: 

 

10.

Bond issued at discount will:

A. Decrease interest expense over time

B. Increase interest expense over time

C. Keep interest expense constant

D. Reduce cash paid

Answer: 

 

11.

A DTA requires valuation allowance when realization is:

A. Possible

B. Probable

C. More likely than not not realizable

D. Remote

Answer: 

 

12.

Which is NOT cash equivalent?

A. 90-day T-bill

B. 2-month commercial paper

C. 6-month certificate of deposit

D. Demand deposit

Answer: 

 

13.

Under indirect method, gain on sale of equipment is:

A. Added

B. Deducted

C. Ignored

D. OCI

Answer: 

 

14.

Permanent differences affect:

A. Deferred tax

B. Effective tax rate

C. Temporary difference

D. DTL only

Answer: 

 

15.

Operating lease under ASC 842 results in:

A. No liability recorded

B. ROU asset and lease liability

C. Only expense recognition

D. Off-balance sheet

Answer: 

 

16.

Which theory treats preferred shareholders similar to liability?

A. Proprietary

B. Entity

C. Residual

D. Fund

Answer: 

 

17.

R&D costs under US GAAP are:

A. Capitalized

B. Deferred

C. Expensed

D. OCI

Answer: 

 

18.

Software costs are capitalized after:

A. Production

B. Feasibility

C. Sale

D. Research

Answer: 

 

19.

Which increases current ratio?

A. Pay accounts payable

B. Buy inventory cash

C. Issue long-term debt

D. Purchase PPE credit

Answer: 

 

20.

Gross profit margin increases when:

A. COGS increases proportionally

B. Sales decrease

C. Sales grow faster than COGS

D. Operating expense decreases

Answer: 

 

21.

A purchase commitment loss is recognized when:

A. Contract signed

B. Market price < contract price

C. Goods delivered

D. Payment made

Answer: 

 

22.

Which affects CFO under indirect method?

A. Dividend paid

B. Gain on bond retirement

C. Increase in inventory

D. Issue stock

Answer: 

 

23.

OCI items are accumulated in:

A. Retained earnings

B. AOCI

C. APIC

D. Current income

Answer: 

 

24.

Times interest earned uses:

A. Net income

B. EBIT

C. EBITDA

D. CFO

Answer: 

 

25.

If tax rate increases after DTL recorded:

A. Decrease DTL

B. Increase DTL

C. No effect

D. OCI adjustment

Answer: 

 

26.

Which is LEAST relevant for liquidity?

A. Current ratio

B. Quick ratio

C. Debt-to-equity

D. OCF ratio

Answer: 

 

27.

Inventory write-down under LCM:

A. Reversed later

B. Permanent under GAAP

C. OCI

D. Deferred

Answer: 

 

28.

Interest paid classified as:

A. Investing

B. Financing

C. Operating

D. OCI

Answer: 

 

29.

Deferred revenue taxed when received creates:

A. DTL

B. DTA

C. Permanent difference

D. No difference

Answer: 

 

30.

Impairment reversal allowed for:

A. Held for use assets

B. Goodwill

C. Assets held for sale

D. PPE

Answer: 

 

31.

Financial capital maintenance measures profit based on:

A. Physical output

B. Net asset increase

C. Sales growth

D. Cash flow

Answer: 

 

32.

Warranty expense creates:

A. Permanent difference

B. Temporary deductible difference

C. OCI

D. Equity reserve

Answer: 

 

33.

Which reduces operating cash flow?

A. Increase in AP

B. Increase in AR

C. Depreciation

D. Impairment

Answer: 

 

34.

Operating lease expense pattern is:

A. Front-loaded

B. Constant

C. Increasing

D. Zero

Answer: 

 

35.

Bond premium amortization:

A. Increases carrying value

B. Decreases interest expense

C. Increases interest expense

D. No effect

Answer: 

 

36.

Extraordinary items are:

A. Separate line item

B. In OCI

C. Not allowed separately

D. Prior period

Answer: 

 

37.

Leverage ratio MOST directly measures:

A. Profitability

B. Liquidity

C. Long-term solvency

D. Efficiency

Answer: 

 

38.

Installment sales for tax vs accrual for books creates:

A. DTL

B. DTA

C. Permanent

D. No effect

Answer: 

 

39.

Retained earnings is reduced by:

A. Net income

B. Dividends

C. OCI gain

D. Share issuance

Answer: 

 

40.

Which increases ROE?

A. Increase equity proportionately

B. Higher leverage with same income

C. Lower net income

D. Higher assets

Answer: 

 

41.

Factoring with recourse results in:

A. Sale only

B. Liability recognition

C. No entry

D. Deferred tax

Answer: 

 

42.

NRV equals:

A. Selling price − disposal cost

B. Replacement cost

C. Cost − margin

D. Fair value

Answer: 

 

43.

Deferred tax is classified as:

A. Current only

B. Noncurrent only

C. Split

D. OCI

Answer: 

 

44.

A strategic shift qualifies as:

A. OCI

B. Discontinued operations

C. Extraordinary

D. Error

Answer: 

 

45.

Which MOST affects gross profit?

A. SG&A expense

B. Interest

C. COGS

D. Tax expense

Answer: 

 

46.

Cash dividend paid classified as:

A. Operating

B. Investing

C. Financing

D. OCI

Answer: 

 

47.

Debt ratio increases when:

A. Assets increase more than debt

B. Debt increases more than assets

C. Equity increases

D. Income increases

Answer: 

 

48.

Which creates permanent difference?

A. Depreciation difference

B. Municipal bond interest

C. Warranty accrual

D. Installment sale

Answer: 

 

49.

Right-of-use asset amortization for finance lease appears in:

A. COGS

B. Depreciation expense

C. Interest expense

D. OCI

Answer: 

 

50.

Comprehensive income includes:

A. Net income only

B. OCI only

C. Net income + OCI

D. Retained earnings

Answer: 

 

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Section B…

 CMA Part 1 MCQs

 

🔥 Advanced CMA-Style MCQs

 

1.

All of the following create a Deferred Tax Liability under US GAAP EXCEPT:

A. Accelerated tax depreciation

B. Installment sales taxed later

C. Revenue recognized for books before tax

D. Warranty expense accrued for books

Answer: 

 

2.

Which of the following is the MOST correct statement regarding Deferred Tax Assets?

A. They always increase net income

B. They arise from permanent differences

C. They represent future deductible amounts

D. They are recorded only if certain

Answer: 

 

3.

All of the following are included in Other Comprehensive Income EXCEPT:

A. Foreign currency translation adjustments

B. Unrealized gains on AFS securities

C. Pension adjustments

D. Gain on sale of equipment

Answer: 

 

4.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate when testing long-lived assets for impairment?

A. Compare carrying value with undiscounted cash flows

B. Measure loss as carrying value minus fair value

C. Reverse impairment if value recovers

D. Perform recoverability test first

Answer: 

 

5.

All of the following are criteria for finance lease classification EXCEPT:

A. Ownership transfers

B. Lease term is major part of economic life

C. PV equals 50% of fair value

D. Bargain purchase option exists

Answer: 

 

6.

Which of the following is the MOST correct treatment of R&D costs under US GAAP?

A. Capitalize all development costs

B. Expense as incurred

C. Record in OCI

D. Defer and amortize

Answer: 

 

7.

All of the following affect operating cash flow under indirect method EXCEPT:

A. Increase in accounts receivable

B. Depreciation expense

C. Dividend paid

D. Increase in accounts payable

Answer: 

 

8.

Which of the following is LEAST relevant in evaluating short-term liquidity?

A. Current ratio

B. Quick ratio

C. Debt-to-equity ratio

D. Operating cash flow ratio

Answer: 

 

9.

All of the following are permanent differences EXCEPT:

A. Municipal bond interest

B. Life insurance proceeds

C. Depreciation timing differences

D. Fines and penalties

Answer: 

 

10.

Which of the following is MOST correct regarding discontinued operations?

A. Reported gross of tax

B. Included in OCI

C. Reported net of tax

D. Treated as extraordinary

Answer: 

 

11.

All of the following are included in Cash Equivalents EXCEPT:

A. 3-month Treasury bill

B. Demand deposit

C. 6-month term deposit

D. Commercial paper maturing in 60 days

Answer: 

 

12.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate when amortizing bond discount?

A. Use effective interest method

B. Increase interest expense

C. Decrease carrying value over time

D. Increase carrying value toward face

Answer: 

 

13.

All of the following increase ROE EXCEPT:

A. Higher leverage with same income

B. Increased net income

C. Increase equity without income change

D. Share buyback

Answer: 

 

14.

Which of the following is the MOST correct statement about valuation allowance?

A. Recorded when realization is remote

B. Reduces Deferred Tax Liability

C. Reduces Deferred Tax Asset

D. Recorded in OCI

Answer: 

 

15.

All of the following reduce retained earnings EXCEPT:

A. Dividends

B. Net loss

C. OCI loss

D. Share issuance

Answer: 

 

16.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate in applying Lower of Cost or Market?

A. Market ceiling equals NRV

B. Floor equals NRV minus normal profit

C. Replacement cost defines market

D. Reversal allowed if value recovers

Answer: 

 

17.

All of the following are characteristics of Operating Lease under ASC 842 EXCEPT:

A. Single lease expense pattern

B. ROU asset recorded

C. Lease liability recorded

D. Interest expense shown separately

Answer: 

 

18.

Which of the following is MOST correct regarding financial capital maintenance?

A. Focuses on physical output

B. Profit equals increase in net assets

C. Ignores equity

D. Based on replacement cost

Answer: 

 

19.

All of the following increase Debt-to-Equity ratio EXCEPT:

A. Issuing bonds

B. Recording net loss

C. Repurchasing shares

D. Issuing common stock

Answer: 

 

20.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate when accounting for warranty liabilities?

A. Recognize if probable

B. Estimate reasonably

C. Recognize when paid

D. Record as expense in sale period

Answer: 

 

21.

All of the following create Deferred Tax Assets EXCEPT:

A. Warranty accrual

B. Litigation accrual

C. Revenue taxed before book recognition

D. Accelerated tax depreciation

Answer: 

 

22.

Which of the following is MOST correct about factoring without recourse?

A. Record liability

B. Treat as secured borrowing

C. Recognize sale and possible loss

D. Defer revenue

Answer: 

 

23.

All of the following affect Gross Profit EXCEPT:

A. Sales

B. COGS

C. Interest expense

D. Inventory write-down

Answer: 

 

24.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate regarding impairment losses?

A. Report in income statement

B. Reverse for assets held for use

C. Recognize when not recoverable

D. Measure using fair value

Answer: 

 

25.

All of the following are financing activities EXCEPT:

A. Debt issuance

B. Dividend payment

C. Share repurchase

D. Purchase of equipment

Answer: 

 

26.

Which of the following is MOST correct regarding OCI?

A. Included in retained earnings directly

B. Accumulated in AOCI

C. Ignored in equity

D. Included in operating income

Answer: 

 

27.

All of the following reduce current ratio EXCEPT:

A. Paying accounts payable

B. Purchasing inventory with cash

C. Recording net income

D. Short-term borrowing

Answer: 

 

28.

Which of the following is LEAST appropriate for evaluating solvency?

A. Debt ratio

B. Times interest earned

C. Current ratio

D. Debt-to-equity

Answer: 

 

29.

All of the following are temporary differences EXCEPT:

A. Installment sale timing

B. Depreciation differences

C. Municipal bond interest

D. Warranty accrual

Answer: 

 

30.

Which of the following is MOST correct about comprehensive income?

A. Equals retained earnings

B. Includes net income and OCI

C. Includes only unrealized gains

D. Excludes discontinued operations

Answer: 

 

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Wednesday, February 18, 2026

Answers.. Essay based on Annual Report. Financial statement



Here is a comprehensive US CMA (Part 1) style essay compilation based on a Company’s Annual Report under US GAAP, covering financial statements, disclosures, governance, risk, and analytical areas.

 

📘 Essay: Analysis of a Company’s Annual Report under US GAAP (CMA Perspective)

An annual report prepared under US GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles) provides financial and non-financial information that enables stakeholders to evaluate a company’s performance, financial position, governance quality, and risk exposure.

Under US GAAP (as issued by ), a complete set of financial statements includes:

1. Income Statement

2. Statement of Comprehensive Income (SOCIE or SCI)

3. Statement of Financial Position (Balance Sheet)

4. Statement of Cash Flows

5. Statement of Changes in Stockholders’ Equity

6. Notes to Financial Statements

 

1️⃣ Income Statement

The Income Statement reports revenues, expenses, gains, and losses over a reporting period.

Key Components:

Net Sales / Revenue

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

Gross Profit

Operating Expenses (SG&A, R&D)

Operating Income

Interest Expense

Income Tax Expense

Net Income

Under US GAAP:

Revenue recognition follows ASC 606 (five-step model).

Expenses are matched with revenues (matching principle).

Unusual items are separately disclosed but extraordinary items are prohibited.

Analytical Importance:

Evaluates profitability

Assesses operating efficiency

Measures earnings quality

 

2️⃣ Statement of Comprehensive Income (SOCIE)

Comprehensive income includes:

Net Income

Other Comprehensive Income (OCI)

OCI includes:

Unrealized gains/losses on available-for-sale securities

Foreign currency translation adjustments

Pension adjustments

Cash flow hedge gains/losses

Comprehensive income provides a broader performance view beyond net income.

 

3️⃣ Statement of Financial Position (Balance Sheet)

Reports:

Assets = Liabilities + Stockholders’ Equity

Assets:

Current Assets (Cash, AR, Inventory)

Non-current Assets (PPE, Intangibles, Goodwill)

Liabilities:

Current Liabilities (AP, Short-term debt)

Long-term Liabilities (Bonds payable, Lease liabilities)

Equity:

Common Stock

Additional Paid-in Capital

Retained Earnings

Accumulated OCI

Liquidity, solvency, and capital structure analysis are performed using this statement.

 

4️⃣ Earnings per Share (EPS vs Diluted EPS)

Basic EPS

= (Net Income – Preferred Dividends) / Weighted Avg. Shares Outstanding

Diluted EPS

Includes impact of:

Convertible bonds

Stock options

Warrants

Convertible preferred shares

Diluted EPS assumes potential conversion of dilutive securities.

👉 Diluted EPS ≤ Basic EPS (if dilutive).

 

5️⃣ Types of Debt

1. Secured vs Unsecured

2. Short-term vs Long-term

3. Convertible Debt

4. Callable Bonds

5. Zero-coupon bonds

6. Lease liabilities (ASC 842)

Debt classification impacts leverage ratios and covenant compliance.

 

6️⃣ Segment Reporting (ASC 280)

Public companies disclose operating segments based on the management approach.

Disclosures include:

Segment revenue

Profit or loss

Assets

Geographic information

Major customers

Example: A multinational like discloses revenue by geographic region and product segment.

Segment reporting improves transparency and risk evaluation.

 

7️⃣ Presentation & Disclosure (US GAAP)

Proper classification and disclosure ensure faithful representation.

Examples:

Contingent liabilities (lawsuits)

Revenue recognition policies

Related-party transactions

Subsequent events

Fair value hierarchy (Level 1, 2, 3)

Footnotes are critical for CMA exam analysis.

 

8️⃣ Corporate Governance

Corporate governance ensures accountability and oversight.

Key elements:

Board of Directors

Audit Committee

Internal Controls (SOX 404)

External Auditor independence

The mandates disclosures for public companies.

Strong governance reduces fraud risk and improves investor confidence.

 

9️⃣ Risk Assessment in Annual Report

Companies disclose risk factors such as:

Credit risk

Market risk (interest rate, FX)

Liquidity risk

Operational risk

Regulatory risk

Cybersecurity risk

Risk disclosures appear in MD&A (Management Discussion & Analysis).

 

🔟 Stakeholders & Their Interests

Stakeholder Expected Interest

Shareholders Profitability, EPS growth

Creditors Solvency, debt coverage

Employees Stability, compensation

Customers Product continuity

Suppliers Payment ability

Government Compliance & taxes

Management Performance incentives

 

🔹 10 One-Line Concept Questions (with Answers)

1. What is the primary purpose of financial reporting?

→ To provide decision-useful information to stakeholders.

2. What does OCI represent?

→ Gains and losses excluded from net income.

3. Under US GAAP, extraordinary items are?

→ Prohibited.

4. Diluted EPS assumes what?

→ Conversion of all dilutive securities.

5. What statement shows liquidity?

→ Statement of Financial Position.

6. Segment reporting follows which ASC?

→ ASC 280.

7. Who sets US GAAP?

→ FASB.

8. What is goodwill tested for annually?

→ Impairment.

9. What report discusses future outlook?

→ MD&A.

10. SOX 404 relates to?

→ Internal control over financial reporting.

 

🔹 20 CMA-Level MCQs (With Answers)

1️⃣ Which item is included in OCI?

A. COGS

B. Pension adjustment

C. Dividend revenue

D. Interest expense

✅ Answer: B

 

2️⃣ Diluted EPS is affected by:

A. Treasury stock

B. Convertible bonds

C. Accounts payable

D. Inventory

✅ B

 

3️⃣ Under US GAAP, segment reporting uses:

A. Geographic method only

B. Management approach

C. IFRS approach

D. Industry method

✅ B

 

4️⃣ A callable bond exposes investors to:

A. Credit risk

B. Reinvestment risk

C. FX risk

D. Liquidity risk

✅ B

 

5️⃣ Which is a Level 3 fair value input?

A. Quoted market price

B. Observable interest rate

C. Unobservable assumptions

D. Treasury bill rate

✅ C

 

6️⃣ Basic EPS ignores:

A. Preferred dividends

B. Convertible securities

C. Weighted shares

D. Net income

✅ B

 

7️⃣ Debt-to-equity ratio measures:

A. Liquidity

B. Profitability

C. Solvency

D. Efficiency

✅ C

 

8️⃣ Goodwill impairment affects:

A. OCI

B. Equity only

C. Net income

D. Cash flow

✅ C

 

9️⃣ Which is a non-financial disclosure?

A. Revenue

B. Litigation risk

C. COGS

D. Depreciation

✅ B

 

🔟 Revenue recognition under ASC 606 requires:

A. Cash receipt

B. Transfer of control

C. Invoice issuance

D. Delivery only

✅ B

 

11️⃣ Comprehensive income equals:

A. Net income + OCI

B. Revenue – Expenses

C. Assets – Liabilities

D. Cash flow

✅ A

 

12️⃣ Convertible debt increases:

A. Basic EPS

B. Diluted EPS denominator

C. Revenue

D. OCI

✅ B

 

13️⃣ Corporate governance reduces:

A. Sales

B. Agency cost

C. Revenue

D. Dividend payout

✅ B

 

14️⃣ Credit risk relates to:

A. Interest rates

B. Default of customer

C. FX fluctuation

D. Market decline

✅ B

 

15️⃣ Lease liability arises under:

A. ASC 842

B. ASC 606

C. ASC 280

D. ASC 740

✅ A

 

16️⃣ Retained earnings increase with:

A. Dividends

B. Net loss

C. Net income

D. OCI loss

✅ C

 

17️⃣ A major customer disclosure is required when:

A. Sales exceed 10%

B. Sales exceed 5%

C. Profits exceed 10%

D. Assets exceed 10%

✅ A

 

18️⃣ MD&A primarily contains:

A. Auditor opinion

B. Management analysis

C. Journal entries

D. Tax return

✅ B

 

19️⃣ Short-term debt appears under:

A. Equity

B. Current liabilities

C. OCI

D. Revenue

✅ B

 

20️⃣ Strong internal control primarily enhances:

A. Fraud risk

B. Earnings volatility

C. Reliability of reporting

D. Tax expense

✅ C

 

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Here are 30 Extremely Difficult Case-Based MCQs based on US GAAP (CMA Part 1 syllabus) covering income statement, SOCIE, balance sheet, EPS, debt, segment reporting, governance, risk, presentation & disclosure.

 

🔥 30 Extremely Difficult Case-Based MCQs (US GAAP – CMA Level)

 

1️⃣ Revenue Recognition – Variable Consideration

A software company enters a $5M contract including performance bonus of $1M if system efficiency exceeds 98%. Based on experience, 70% probability of achievement exists. Under ASC 606, revenue recognized at inception should be:

A. $5M

B. $5.7M

C. $6M

D. $5.3M

✅ Answer: A

Because variable consideration must be included only to the extent it is probable that significant reversal will not occur. 70% probability may not meet “probable” threshold under US GAAP (high threshold).

 

2️⃣ OCI vs Net Income

A company records unrealized gain on AFS debt securities of $400,000 and foreign currency loss of $100,000. Net income is $2M.

Comprehensive income equals:

A. $2M

B. $2.3M

C. $2.4M

D. $2.5M

✅ Answer: B

OCI = 400,000 – 100,000 = 300,000

Comprehensive Income = 2M + 300,000 = 2.3M

 

3️⃣ Diluted EPS – Convertible Bonds

Net income: $5M

Convertible bonds interest (after tax): $600,000

Shares outstanding: 1M

Convertible into 200,000 shares

Diluted EPS = ?

A. 5.00

B. 4.50

C. 4.67

D. 5.60

✅ Answer: C

Adjusted NI = 5M + 600k = 5.6M

Shares = 1M + 200k = 1.2M

5.6M / 1.2M = 4.67

 

4️⃣ Debt Covenant Risk

A company’s debt covenant requires debt-to-equity ≤ 2.0.

Debt = $8M, Equity = $4M.

After recognizing operating lease liability of $2M (ASC 842), covenant impact:

A. No impact

B. Violated

C. Improved ratio

D. Equity increases

✅ Answer: B

New debt = 10M

10 / 4 = 2.5 → Covenant violated

 

5️⃣ Segment Reporting – Management Approach

A CEO internally reviews segments by geography, but financial reports disclose by product line.

Under ASC 280:

A. Allowed

B. Not allowed

C. Optional

D. Depends on auditor

✅ Answer: B

External reporting must follow management approach.

 

6️⃣ Goodwill Impairment

Fair value of reporting unit = $20M

Carrying value = $23M

Goodwill recorded = $5M

Impairment loss?

A. $3M

B. $5M

C. $2M

D. $0

✅ Answer: A

Impairment = Carrying – FV = 3M (limited to goodwill).

 

7️⃣ Contingent Liability

Legal case: 60% chance of $1M loss, 40% chance of $3M loss.

Accrual required?

A. $1M

B. $3M

C. $1.8M

D. Disclose only

✅ Answer: A

Accrue most likely amount if probable.

 

8️⃣ Stock Options – Dilutive Effect

Net income: $3M

Shares: 500,000

Options: 100,000 @ $10

Market price: $20

Dilution method?

A. If-converted

B. Treasury stock

C. Equity method

D. Cost method

✅ Answer: B

Options use treasury stock method.

 

9️⃣ Fair Value Hierarchy

Private valuation model using management assumptions is:

A. Level 1

B. Level 2

C. Level 3

D. OCI item

✅ Answer: C

Unobservable inputs → Level 3.

 

🔟 Comprehensive Income Presentation

OCI must be presented:

A. Only in equity

B. Separate statement or continuous statement

C. In cash flow

D. In notes only

✅ Answer: B

 

11️⃣ Major Customer Disclosure

Revenue from one customer = 12% of total revenue.

Requirement?

A. Disclose customer name

B. Disclose concentration

C. No disclosure

D. OCI disclosure

✅ Answer: B

 

12️⃣ Pension Re-measurement Loss

Reported in:

A. Net income

B. OCI

C. Cash flow

D. Equity only

✅ Answer: B

 

13️⃣ EPS Anti-Dilutive Securities

Convertible preferred shares increase EPS if converted.

Treatment?

A. Include

B. Exclude

C. OCI

D. Mandatory convert

✅ Answer: B

Anti-dilutive securities excluded.

 

14️⃣ Liquidity Risk Indicator

Best indicator:

A. Gross margin

B. Current ratio

C. ROE

D. EPS

✅ Answer: B

 

15️⃣ Internal Control Weakness

Material weakness disclosed under:

A. Income statement

B. MD&A

C. SOX 404 report

D. OCI

✅ Answer: C

 

16️⃣ Debt Classification

Long-term debt due in 9 months but refinanced before issuance of FS:

A. Current

B. Non-current

C. OCI

D. Equity

✅ Answer: B

If refinancing completed before issuance.

 

17️⃣ Revenue – Principal vs Agent

Company earns commission only.

Revenue recognized:

A. Gross amount

B. Net commission

C. Cash received

D. Contract value

✅ Answer: B

Agent reports net.

 

18️⃣ Retained Earnings Adjustment

Prior period error correction affects:

A. Current income

B. OCI

C. Beginning retained earnings

D. Cash flow

✅ Answer: C

 

19️⃣ Callable Bonds Risk to Issuer

Issuer benefits when:

A. Rates increase

B. Rates decrease

C. Inflation rises

D. Equity rises

✅ Answer: B

Issuer calls when rates fall.

 

20️⃣ Operating Segment Threshold

Segment reportable if revenue ≥:

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

✅ Answer: B

10% test.

 

21️⃣ Deferred Tax Asset Valuation Allowance

Recognized when:

A. Always

B. Probable realization

C. More likely than not not realizable

D. Equity decreases

✅ Answer: C

 

22️⃣ Market Risk Disclosure Appears In

A. Income statement

B. Balance sheet

C. MD&A

D. OCI

✅ Answer: C

 

23️⃣ Lease Expense Classification

Operating lease expense is:

A. Interest + Depreciation separate

B. Single lease cost

C. OCI

D. Finance income

✅ Answer: B

 

24️⃣ EPS Weighted Shares

Shares issued mid-year are:

A. Fully included

B. Ignored

C. Time-weighted

D. OCI

✅ Answer: C

 

25️⃣ Equity Issuance Costs

Recorded as:

A. Expense

B. OCI

C. Reduction of APIC

D. Liability

✅ Answer: C

 

26️⃣ Foreign Subsidiary Translation Gain

Reported in:

A. Net income

B. OCI

C. Retained earnings

D. Revenue

✅ Answer: B

 

27️⃣ Going Concern Disclosure

Required if doubt exists for:

A. 3 months

B. 6 months

C. 1 year

D. 2 years

✅ Answer: C

 

28️⃣ Inventory Write-down Reversal (US GAAP)

If market recovers:

A. Reverse loss

B. OCI

C. Not allowed

D. Capitalize

✅ Answer: C

No reversal under US GAAP.

 

29️⃣ Interest Coverage Ratio Measures

A. Liquidity

B. Solvency

C. Profitability

D. Efficiency

✅ Answer: B

 

30️⃣ Related Party Transaction Disclosure

Required when:

A. Material

B. Always

C. >10%

D. Cash based

✅ Answer: B

All material related party transactions must be disclosed.

 

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Here are 20 Numerical Integrated Case-Based MCQs based on a Full Annual Report Simulation (US GAAP – CMA Part 1 level).

Each case integrates:

✔ Income Statement

✔ SOCIE

✔ Statement of Financial Position

✔ EPS

✔ Lease (ASC 842)

✔ Revenue (ASC 606)

✔ Segment Reporting (ASC 280)

✔ Debt & Ratios

✔ OCI

✔ Risk & Disclosure

 

📊 Integrated Annual Report Simulation – Case MCQs

 

🔷 Case Background (Use for Q1–Q5)

Omega Corp reports:

Revenue: $50M

COGS: $30M

Operating Expenses: $8M

Interest Expense: $2M

Tax Rate: 25%

Unrealized gain on AFS securities: $1M

Foreign currency translation loss: $400,000

Shares outstanding: 5M

Convertible bonds add 1M shares if converted

After-tax interest on convertible bonds: $1.2M

 

1️⃣ Net Income equals:

A. $7.5M

B. $8M

C. $6M

D. $9M

✅ Answer: C

Revenue 50 – 30 – 8 – 2 = 10M pretax

Tax (25%) = 2.5M

Net income = 7.5M? Wait — correction:

50 – 30 = 20

20 – 8 = 12

12 – 2 = 10

Tax 25% = 2.5

Net = 7.5

Correct answer: A

 

2️⃣ Comprehensive Income equals:

A. $8.1M

B. $8.5M

C. $8.0M

D. $7.5M

OCI = 1M – 0.4M = 0.6M

Comprehensive income = 7.5 + 0.6 = 8.1M

✅ Answer: A

 

3️⃣ Basic EPS =

A. $1.50

B. $1.20

C. $1.60

D. $1.75

7.5M / 5M = 1.50

✅ Answer: A

 

4️⃣ Diluted EPS =

A. $1.20

B. $1.45

C. $1.30

D. $1.50

Adjusted NI = 7.5 + 1.2 = 8.7M

Shares = 5 + 1 = 6M

8.7 / 6 = 1.45

✅ Answer: B

 

5️⃣ Dilution impact is:

A. Anti-dilutive

B. EPS unchanged

C. Dilutive

D. Accretive

1.45 < 1.50 → Dilutive

✅ Answer: C

 

🔷 Case 2 (Q6–Q9) – Lease & Debt Impact

Company reports:

Debt = $40M

Equity = $20M

Operating lease liability recognized = $10M

EBITDA = $15M

Interest = $5M

 

6️⃣ Debt-to-equity before lease =

40 / 20 = 2.0

✅ Answer: 2.0

 

7️⃣ After lease recognition, D/E =

(40 + 10) / 20 = 2.5

✅ Answer: 2.5

 

8️⃣ Interest Coverage Ratio =

EBIT = assume EBITDA 15M (no depreciation given)

15 / 5 = 3

✅ Answer: 3 times

 

9️⃣ Covenant max D/E allowed = 2.2. Result?

A. Safe

B. Violated

C. Improved

D. No impact

2.5 > 2.2

✅ Answer: B

 

🔷 Case 3 (Q10–Q12) – Revenue Recognition

Contract value: $10M

Performance bonus: $2M (80% probability)

Company concludes bonus is probable not to reverse.

Costs incurred this year: 60% complete.

 

🔟 Transaction price =

A. 10M

B. 11.6M

C. 12M

D. 10.8M

Include bonus → 12M

✅ Answer: C

 

11️⃣ Revenue recognized this year =

60% × 12M = 7.2M

✅ Answer: 7.2M

 

12️⃣ If bonus not probable, revenue would be:

60% × 10M = 6M

✅ Answer: 6M

 

🔷 Case 4 (Q13–Q15) – Segment Reporting

Company has 3 segments:

Segment Revenue Profit

A 100M 15M

B 12M 2M

C 8M 1M

Total revenue = 120M

 

13️⃣ Which segments reportable (10% revenue test)?

10% of 120M = 12M

A. A only

B. A & B

C. All

D. A & C

B = 12M qualifies

✅ Answer: B

 

14️⃣ Segment C requires disclosure if total reportable revenue < 75%?

Yes, must meet 75% test

✅ Answer: Yes

 

15️⃣ Major customer revenue = $15M from Segment A. Disclosure required?

15 / 120 = 12.5%

Yes (>10%)

✅ Answer: Yes

 

🔷 Case 5 (Q16–Q18) – Goodwill & Impairment

Carrying value reporting unit = $80M

Fair value = $70M

Goodwill included = $15M

 

16️⃣ Impairment loss =

80 – 70 = 10M

Limited to goodwill (15M available)

✅ Answer: 10M

 

17️⃣ New goodwill balance =

15 – 10 = 5M

✅ Answer: 5M

 

18️⃣ Impairment affects:

A. OCI

B. Net income

C. Equity only

D. Cash flow

✅ Answer: B

 

🔷 Case 6 (Q19–Q20) – Deferred Tax & OCI

Unrealized OCI gain = $2M

Tax rate = 25%

Deferred tax liability required.

 

19️⃣ DTL amount =

2M × 25% = 500k

✅ Answer: $500,000

 

20️⃣ Net OCI reported in equity =

2M – 500k = 1.5M

✅ Answer: $1.5M

 

📌 CMA Exam Integration Covered

✔ Income statement computation

✔ Comprehensive income

✔ EPS & dilution

✔ Lease capitalization impact

✔ Debt covenant analysis

✔ Revenue under ASC 606

✔ Segment reporting thresholds

✔ Goodwill impairment

✔ Deferred tax on OCI

✔ Risk & covenant violation

 

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Here are CMA-Level MCQs on Stakeholders & Their Interests (US GAAP perspective, Annual Report context, governance & risk focus).

 

📘 MCQs – Stakeholders & Their Interests (US CMA Level)

 

1️⃣ Which stakeholder group is primarily interested in EPS growth and dividend policy?

A. Suppliers

B. Employees

C. Shareholders

D. Customers

✅ Answer: C

Shareholders focus on profitability, EPS, dividends, and capital appreciation.

 

2️⃣ Creditors are most concerned with which ratio?

A. Gross margin

B. Current ratio

C. Inventory turnover

D. EPS

✅ Answer: B

Creditors focus on liquidity and solvency.

 

3️⃣ Long-term bondholders are primarily concerned with:

A. Market share

B. Interest coverage ratio

C. Sales growth

D. Advertising expense

✅ Answer: B

Interest coverage indicates ability to pay interest.

 

4️⃣ Which stakeholder is most interested in job security and pension funding disclosures?

A. Government

B. Employees

C. Investors

D. Customers

✅ Answer: B

Employees focus on compensation, benefits, stability.

 

5️⃣ A supplier extending trade credit will closely monitor:

A. Dividend payout ratio

B. Debt-to-equity ratio

C. Accounts payable turnover

D. Gross profit margin

✅ Answer: B

Suppliers evaluate solvency risk before extending credit.

 

6️⃣ Which stakeholder focuses on product continuity and service quality?

A. Shareholders

B. Customers

C. Government

D. Auditors

✅ Answer: B

Customers expect reliable delivery and financial stability.

 

7️⃣ Government regulators are most interested in:

A. Stock price

B. Tax compliance and legal disclosures

C. Market capitalization

D. Dividend policy

✅ Answer: B

Regulators monitor compliance and tax reporting.

Example regulator: 

 

8️⃣ Management compensation linked to ROE primarily aligns management with:

A. Customers

B. Employees

C. Shareholders

D. Suppliers

✅ Answer: C

Performance-based pay aligns with shareholder wealth maximization.

 

9️⃣ Local communities are primarily concerned with:

A. EPS dilution

B. Environmental and social responsibility

C. Inventory valuation

D. Share buybacks

✅ Answer: B

Communities focus on CSR and environmental impact.

 

🔟 Institutional investors are most sensitive to:

A. Short-term wage negotiations

B. Long-term sustainable earnings

C. Supplier payment terms

D. Marketing campaigns

✅ Answer: B

Institutional investors evaluate long-term performance and risk.

 

11️⃣ Which stakeholder group benefits most from strong internal controls under SOX?

A. Suppliers

B. Shareholders

C. Competitors

D. Customers

✅ Answer: B

Strong internal controls reduce fraud risk and improve reliability.

 

12️⃣ Trade unions primarily focus on:

A. Debt covenants

B. Employee wages and benefits

C. Share repurchase programs

D. Bond ratings

✅ Answer: B

Trade unions negotiate labor conditions.

 

13️⃣ Rating agencies evaluate which stakeholder interest?

A. Customer loyalty

B. Credit risk of the company

C. Employee turnover

D. Dividend growth

✅ Answer: B

Credit rating impacts bondholders and lenders.

 

14️⃣ Venture capital investors are primarily interested in:

A. Stable dividends

B. High growth potential and exit strategy

C. Trade discounts

D. Pension obligations

✅ Answer: B

VCs focus on rapid growth and capital gains.

 

15️⃣ Which stakeholder is most affected by foreign currency risk disclosures?

A. Domestic retail customers

B. International investors

C. Warehouse employees

D. Local suppliers

✅ Answer: B

International investors monitor FX exposure.

 

16️⃣ A high dividend payout ratio may conflict with the interests of:

A. Retained earnings growth-focused investors

B. Retiree investors

C. Bondholders

D. Tax authorities

✅ Answer: A

Growth investors prefer reinvestment over dividends.

 

17️⃣ Environmental risk disclosures primarily address concerns of:

A. Suppliers

B. Communities and regulators

C. Internal auditors

D. Bond traders only

✅ Answer: B

Environmental reporting affects regulatory and community trust.

 

18️⃣ Employees reviewing annual reports are least concerned about:

A. Pension obligations

B. Profitability

C. Working capital ratios

D. Job stability

✅ Answer: C

Working capital ratios are more creditor-focused.

 

19️⃣ Which stakeholder group is most sensitive to dilution from convertible securities?

A. Customers

B. Shareholders

C. Suppliers

D. Government

✅ Answer: B

Dilution reduces EPS and ownership percentage.

 

20️⃣ If a company violates a debt covenant, which stakeholder is immediately impacted?

A. Customers

B. Creditors

C. Employees

D. Community

✅ Answer: B

Covenant violation may trigger repayment or penalties.

 

🎯 CMA Exam Insight

Stakeholder interests commonly tested in:

✔ Ratio analysis

✔ Corporate governance

✔ Risk assessment

✔ Capital structure decisions

✔ Dividend policy

✔ ESG disclosures

✔ Internal controls (SOX 404)

 

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what Annual Report function, features for all' types of stakeholders,specify


Annual reports serve as comprehensive documents summarizing a company's financial performance, operations, achievements, and strategic direction over the past year. They promote transparency and accountability for all stakeholders, including investors, management, employees, regulators, creditors, customers, suppliers, and the public.[1][2]


## Core Functions

Annual reports provide stakeholders with financial data, risk analysis, and future outlooks to support informed decisions.[1] They enable internal evaluations for management strategy reviews and ensure regulatory compliance through verified disclosures.[2][3] Additionally, they build trust by highlighting sustainability efforts and business stability.[4]


## Key Features and Sections

Typical sections include financial statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow), management's discussion and analysis (MD&A), chairperson's letter, auditor's report, corporate governance details, and operating highlights.[5][6][7] Visual elements like charts and interactive digital formats enhance readability and engagement.[8][9]


## Stakeholder-Specific Benefits


| Stakeholder       | Key Functions and Features                                                                 |

|-------------------|--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------|

| Investors/Shareholders | Financial health, profitability, growth prospects, ROI via MD&A and statements [1][4] |

| Management       | Performance review, strategic insights, risk assessment for planning [1][2]        |

| Employees        | Company stability, culture, future plans, achievements [1][4]                      |

| Regulators       | Compliance verification, accurate disclosures, governance reports [1][3]           |

| Creditors/Lenders| Repayment capacity, creditworthiness from financials [1]                               |

| Customers/Suppliers | Reliability, operational stability, business prospects [1]                            |

| Public/Community | CSR initiatives, sustainability, community impact [4][6]                          |


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Sunday, November 30, 2025

MCQ questions on Financial statements


✅ MCQ QUESTIONS— FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING


1. Which of the following is a characteristic of an operating lease (lessee books)?

A. Lessee records asset and liability
B. Lease transfers major risks & rewards
C. Lease rental is charged to Profit & Loss
D. Lessee records depreciation

Answer: 


2. In a finance/capital lease, the leased asset is recorded by the lessee at:

A. Residual value
B. Fair value or PV of lease payments, whichever is lower
C. Cost of asset to lessor
D. Only PV of lease payments

Answer: 


3. Age-wise analysis of trade receivables is mainly used for:

A. Cash flow forecasting
B. Bad debts provisioning
C. Inventory valuation
D. Depreciation estimation

Answer: 


4. Under mortgage loan, the security is:

A. Movable property
B. Immovable property
C. Hypothecated stock
D. Shares pledged

Answer: 


5. Under hypothecation, the lender has:

A. Physical possession of goods
B. No charge on assets
C. Charge on movable goods without possession
D. Charge on immovable property

Answer: 


6. Under pledge, the lender has:

A. Physical possession of goods
B. Charge without possession
C. Charge only on immovable assets
D. Charge on debtor's receivables

Answer: 


7. Refinance loan taken to repay an existing long-term loan is classified as:

A. Current liability
B. Non-current liability
C. Other equity
D. Deferred asset

Answer: 


8. The prudent (conservatism) concept requires:

A. Recognise income early
B. Record liabilities when uncertain
C. Ignore probable losses
D. Overstate assets

Answer: 


9. The first footnote below a balance sheet generally contains:

A. Auditor’s report
B. Accounting policies summary
C. Director’s report
D. Cash flow information

Answer: 


10. Going concern assumption means:

A. Business is for temporary period
B. Business will liquidate shortly
C. Business will continue for foreseeable future
D. Business will operate for one year only

Answer: 


11. Realisation concept recognizes revenue when:

A. Cash is received
B. Risk and rewards transfer
C. Order is received
D. Invoice is raised

Answer: 


12. Separate entity concept means:

A. Owner and business are same
B. Owner is responsible for all acts
C. Business is distinct from owner
D. Assets belong to owner personally

Answer: 


13. Capital expenditure relates to:

A. Day-to-day expenses
B. Cost generating future economic benefits
C. Purely advertisement cost
D. Salary of employees

Answer: 


14. Revenue expenditure is:

A. Cost improving asset life
B. Expenses recurring in nature
C. Cost of new machine installation
D. Cost of building extension

Answer: 


15. Proprietary theory treats equity as:

A. Owners’ interest
B. Liability
C. Asset
D. Capital loss

Answer: 


16. Under proprietary theory, accounting equation is:

A. Assets = Liabilities
B. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
C. Assets = Equity
D. Assets = Equity – Liabilities

Answer: 


17. Residuary equity theory views ownership interest as:

A. Fixed claim
B. Residual claim after satisfying liabilities
C. Equal to liabilities
D. Priority claim

Answer: 


18. A stock dividend means:

A. Dividend paid in cash
B. Dividend paid in shares
C. Dividend paid in debentures
D. Dividend paid through assets

Answer: 


19. Equity dividend refers to:

A. Dividend paid to preference shareholders
B. Dividend paid to debenture holders
C. Dividend paid to equity shareholders
D. Dividend paid to creditors

Answer: 


20. Audit committee independence requires:

A. Majority internal employees
B. Majority independent directors
C. CEO must be chairperson
D. CFO must be a member

Answer: 


21. Which is NOT a component of the annual report?

A. Director’s Report
B. Auditor’s Report
C. Statement of Profit & Loss
D. Employees’ personal information

Answer: 


22. Accrual concept means revenue/expense is recorded:

A. Only when cash is received
B. On performance/obligation basis
C. Only when bank approves
D. Only at end of year

Answer: 


23. Money measurement concept records transactions:

A. In units of time
B. In monetary terms only
C. In physical quantities
D. Based on manager’s judgment

Answer: 


24. An item of value in accounting is:

A. Liability
B. Asset
C. Expense
D. Loss

Answer: 


25. Net worth of a company equals:

A. Total assets – Total liabilities
B. Current assets – current liabilities
C. Equity share capital only
D. Profit for the year

Answer: 


26. Listing of a public company in stock exchange requires:

A. Only incorporation
B. SEBI approval and compliance
C. RBI approval only
D. GST registration

Answer: 


27. CEO stands for:

A. Chief Engineering Officer
B. Central Executive Officer
C. Chief Executive Officer
D. Chief Entity Officer

Answer: 


28. CFO is responsible for:

A. HR management
B. Finance and financial reporting
C. Legal affairs only
D. Production planning

Answer: 


29. Depreciation is:

A. Physical reduction only
B. Allocation of cost of tangible asset
C. Market value reduction
D. Cash loss

Answer: 


30. Amortisation is used for:

A. Tangible asset
B. Intangible asset
C. Land
D. Inventory

Answer: 


31. Impairment loss equals:

A. Carrying amount – recoverable amount
B. Cost – depreciation
C. Market value – cost
D. Fair value – residual value

Answer: 


32. Historical cost concept records assets at:

A. Market value
B. Replacement cost
C. Original purchase price
D. Discounted value

Answer: 


33. Which is a component of financial statements?

A. Internal memo
B. Board meeting notes
C. Cash flow statement
D. Advertisement brochure

Answer: 


34. Lessor in a finance lease recognises:

A. Lease expenses
B. Lease receivable
C. Leased asset
D. Asset impairment only

Answer: 


35. Lessee in an operating lease recognises:

A. Leased asset
B. Lease liability
C. Lease rental expense
D. Lease receivable

Answer: 


36. Mortgage loan appears in the balance sheet under:

A. Equity
B. Other current liabilities
C. Long-term borrowings
D. Other assets

Answer: 

37. Hypothecated goods appear in:

A. Off-balance sheet only
B. Inventory
C. Other current liabilities
D. Loans & advances

Answer: 


38. Footnotes in FS are used for:

A. Disclosing accounting policies
B. Selecting audit firm
C. Disclosing salary slips
D. Registering company

Answer: 


39. Capital lease depreciation is charged by:

A. Lessor
B. Lessee
C. Bank
D. Auditor

Answer: 


40. Impairment is required when:

A. Market value increases
B. Asset becomes obsolete
C. Asset is under construction
D. Inventory is sold at higher price

Answer: 


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ANSWERS....

MCQ QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS — FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING


1. Which of the following is a characteristic of an operating lease (lessee books)?

A. Lessee records asset and liability
B. Lease transfers major risks & rewards
C. Lease rental is charged to Profit & Loss
D. Lessee records depreciation

Answer: C


2. In a finance/capital lease, the leased asset is recorded by the lessee at:

A. Residual value
B. Fair value or PV of lease payments, whichever is lower
C. Cost of asset to lessor
D. Only PV of lease payments

Answer: B


3. Age-wise analysis of trade receivables is mainly used for:

A. Cash flow forecasting
B. Bad debts provisioning
C. Inventory valuation
D. Depreciation estimation

Answer: B


4. Under mortgage loan, the security is:

A. Movable property
B. Immovable property
C. Hypothecated stock
D. Shares pledged

Answer: B


5. Under hypothecation, the lender has:

A. Physical possession of goods
B. No charge on assets
C. Charge on movable goods without possession
D. Charge on immovable property

Answer: C


6. Under pledge, the lender has:

A. Physical possession of goods
B. Charge without possession
C. Charge only on immovable assets
D. Charge on debtor's receivables

Answer: A


7. Refinance loan taken to repay an existing long-term loan is classified as:

A. Current liability
B. Non-current liability
C. Other equity
D. Deferred asset

Answer: B


8. The prudent (conservatism) concept requires:

A. Recognise income early
B. Record liabilities when uncertain
C. Ignore probable losses
D. Overstate assets

Answer: B


9. The first footnote below a balance sheet generally contains:

A. Auditor’s report
B. Accounting policies summary
C. Director’s report
D. Cash flow information

Answer: B


10. Going concern assumption means:

A. Business is for temporary period
B. Business will liquidate shortly
C. Business will continue for foreseeable future
D. Business will operate for one year only

Answer: C


11. Realisation concept recognizes revenue when:

A. Cash is received
B. Risk and rewards transfer
C. Order is received
D. Invoice is raised

Answer: B


12. Separate entity concept means:

A. Owner and business are same
B. Owner is responsible for all acts
C. Business is distinct from owner
D. Assets belong to owner personally

Answer: C


13. Capital expenditure relates to:

A. Day-to-day expenses
B. Cost generating future economic benefits
C. Purely advertisement cost
D. Salary of employees

Answer: B


14. Revenue expenditure is:

A. Cost improving asset life
B. Expenses recurring in nature
C. Cost of new machine installation
D. Cost of building extension

Answer: B


15. Proprietary theory treats equity as:

A. Owners’ interest
B. Liability
C. Asset
D. Capital loss

Answer: A


16. Under proprietary theory, accounting equation is:

A. Assets = Liabilities
B. Assets – Liabilities = Equity
C. Assets = Equity
D. Assets = Equity – Liabilities

Answer: C


17. Residuary equity theory views ownership interest as:

A. Fixed claim
B. Residual claim after satisfying liabilities
C. Equal to liabilities
D. Priority claim

Answer: B


18. A stock dividend means:

A. Dividend paid in cash
B. Dividend paid in shares
C. Dividend paid in debentures
D. Dividend paid through assets

Answer: B


19. Equity dividend refers to:

A. Dividend paid to preference shareholders
B. Dividend paid to debenture holders
C. Dividend paid to equity shareholders
D. Dividend paid to creditors

Answer: C


20. Audit committee independence requires:

A. Majority internal employees
B. Majority independent directors
C. CEO must be chairperson
D. CFO must be a member

Answer: B


21. Which is NOT a component of the annual report?

A. Director’s Report
B. Auditor’s Report
C. Statement of Profit & Loss
D. Employees’ personal information

Answer: D


22. Accrual concept means revenue/expense is recorded:

A. Only when cash is received
B. On performance/obligation basis
C. Only when bank approves
D. Only at end of year

Answer: B


23. Money measurement concept records transactions:

A. In units of time
B. In monetary terms only
C. In physical quantities
D. Based on manager’s judgment

Answer: B


24. An item of value in accounting is:

A. Liability
B. Asset
C. Expense
D. Loss

Answer: B


25. Net worth of a company equals:

A. Total assets – Total liabilities
B. Current assets – current liabilities
C. Equity share capital only
D. Profit for the year

Answer: A


26. Listing of a public company in stock exchange requires:

A. Only incorporation
B. SEBI approval and compliance
C. RBI approval only
D. GST registration

Answer: B


27. CEO stands for:

A. Chief Engineering Officer
B. Central Executive Officer
C. Chief Executive Officer
D. Chief Entity Officer

Answer: C


28. CFO is responsible for:

A. HR management
B. Finance and financial reporting
C. Legal affairs only
D. Production planning

Answer: B


29. Depreciation is:

A. Physical reduction only
B. Allocation of cost of tangible asset
C. Market value reduction
D. Cash loss

Answer: B


30. Amortisation is used for:

A. Tangible asset
B. Intangible asset
C. Land
D. Inventory

Answer: B


31. Impairment loss equals:

A. Carrying amount – recoverable amount
B. Cost – depreciation
C. Market value – cost
D. Fair value – residual value

Answer: A


32. Historical cost concept records assets at:

A. Market value
B. Replacement cost
C. Original purchase price
D. Discounted value

Answer: C


33. Which is a component of financial statements?

A. Internal memo
B. Board meeting notes
C. Cash flow statement
D. Advertisement brochure

Answer: C


34. Lessor in a finance lease recognises:

A. Lease expenses
B. Lease receivable
C. Leased asset
D. Asset impairment only

Answer: B


35. Lessee in an operating lease recognises:

A. Leased asset
B. Lease liability
C. Lease rental expense
D. Lease receivable

Answer: C


36. Mortgage loan appears in the balance sheet under:

A. Equity
B. Other current liabilities
C. Long-term borrowings
D. Other assets

Answer: C


37. Hypothecated goods appear in:

A. Off-balance sheet only
B. Inventory
C. Other current liabilities
D. Loans & advances

Answer: B


38. Footnotes in FS are used for:

A. Disclosing accounting policies
B. Selecting audit firm
C. Disclosing salary slips
D. Registering company

Answer: A


39. Capital lease depreciation is charged by:

A. Lessor
B. Lessee
C. Bank
D. Auditor

Answer: B


40. Impairment is required when:

A. Market value increases
B. Asset becomes obsolete
C. Asset is under construction
D. Inventory is sold at higher price

Answer: B


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