Saturday, December 20, 2025

CIA part 1 mocktest answers

 Below are challenging, examinable, essay-based MCQ questions with on Objectivity, Integrity, Independence, Proficiency, Confidentiality, and Due Professional Care, strictly aligned with the CIA Part 1 (Foundations of Internal Auditing) – 2025 syllabus.


 

CIA PART 1 – ETHICS & ATTRIBUTE STANDARDS

(Objectivity • Integrity • Independence • Proficiency • Confidentiality)

 

Section A…. 15MCQ Essay based…

Q1. (Integrity vs Objectivity – Subtle Threat)

An internal auditor discovers minor but recurring policy violations by a department head who is also a close mentor and instrumental in the auditor’s career growth. The violations are unlikely to be material individually but indicate a pattern of non-compliance. The auditor considers excluding these findings to avoid damaging the relationship.

Which principle of the IIA Code of Ethics is most directly compromised if the auditor omits the findings?

A. Independence

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: C. Integrity

Explanation:

Integrity requires honesty and courage to report facts truthfully, regardless of personal consequences. The issue is not bias in judgment (objectivity) but deliberate suppression of known facts, which violates integrity.

 

Q2. (Objectivity vs Independence – Exam Favorite Trap)

An internal auditor is assigned to audit the procurement function. Two years ago, the auditor worked in the same function but had no involvement in current procurement decisions. Management insists that independence is impaired.

What is the best CIA-compliant conclusion?

A. Independence is impaired because of prior employment

B. Objectivity is impaired but independence is not

C. Neither independence nor objectivity is impaired

D. Independence is not impaired, but objectivity should be assessed and safeguards applied

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Independence relates to the organizational reporting line, not personal history. Prior involvement creates a potential objectivity threat, requiring disclosure and safeguards—not automatic disqualification.

 

Q3. (Confidentiality – Legal vs Ethical Conflict)

During an engagement, an internal auditor uncovers evidence of illegal data manipulation. Senior management instructs the auditor not to disclose the information externally to avoid reputational damage. No law explicitly requires reporting.

What is the auditor’s most appropriate action?

A. Maintain confidentiality and follow management’s instruction

B. Report the issue only if required by law

C. Escalate internally according to governance protocols

D. Immediately disclose the issue to regulators

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Confidentiality does not override governance responsibilities. The auditor must escalate internally (e.g., audit committee). External disclosure occurs only when legally mandated.

 

Q4. (Proficiency vs Due Professional Care)

An internal auditor accepts an IT audit engagement despite limited technical knowledge, believing general audit skills are sufficient. The auditor does not consult specialists and fails to identify critical system vulnerabilities.

Which standard is primarily violated?

A. Objectivity

B. Proficiency

C. Independence

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Proficiency requires possessing or obtaining necessary knowledge. Due professional care relates to diligence, but the root failure is lack of competence.

 

Q5. (Independence – Organizational Reporting Line)

The Chief Audit Executive (CAE) reports administratively and functionally to the CFO. The CFO frequently modifies audit scopes and delays issuing reports.

Which CIA principle is most seriously threatened?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Independence

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Functional reporting to management compromises organizational independence. The CAE should report functionally to the board or audit committee.

 

Q6. (Objectivity – Gifts & Familiarity Threat)

An internal auditor accepts a high-value gift from an auditee after completing an engagement. The audit report was already issued and unbiased.

What is the best CIA-based assessment?

A. Acceptable because the audit is complete

B. Acceptable if disclosed to management

C. Unacceptable as it impairs objectivity in appearance

D. Acceptable if local company policy allows it

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Objectivity includes appearance of bias, not just actual bias. High-value gifts create familiarity and self-interest threats.

 

Q7. (Integrity – Selective Reporting)

An auditor reports control weaknesses accurately but deliberately delays issuing the report to align with management’s preferred timing for public disclosures.

Which ethical principle is violated?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Integrity requires timely and honest communication. Deliberate delay for strategic advantage undermines ethical conduct.

 

Q8. (Confidentiality – Personal Benefit)

An internal auditor uses non-public audit information to advise a friend to avoid investing in the organization.

Which action best describes this situation?

A. Acceptable personal judgment

B. Breach of confidentiality

C. Lack of objectivity only

D. Violation only if financial gain occurs

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Using confidential information for any personal advantage, direct or indirect, violates confidentiality—financial gain is not required.

 

Q9. (Proficiency – Continuous Improvement)

Which situation best demonstrates non-compliance with proficiency standards?

A. Auditor relies on past experience instead of updated standards

B. Auditor seeks expert help for complex valuation

C. Auditor attends regular professional training

D. Auditor uses automated audit tools

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Proficiency requires continuous development. Outdated knowledge is a direct violation.

 

Q10. (Objectivity vs Advocacy – Very Tricky)

An internal auditor recommends a specific vendor solution during consulting work and later audits the implementation of that solution.

What is the most appropriate CIA position?

A. No issue since consulting was allowed

B. Objectivity is impaired and safeguards are required

C. Independence is automatically impaired

D. Confidentiality is violated

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Advocacy creates self-review threat. Objectivity—not independence—is affected. Disclosure and safeguards are mandatory.

 

Q11. (Integrity – Pressure from Senior Management)

Management pressures an internal auditor to soften language in an audit report to “maintain harmony,” though findings remain factually correct.

What should the auditor do?

A. Modify wording to maintain relationships

B. Refuse and escalate to governance

C. Accept changes if conclusions remain same

D. Delay report issuance

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Integrity requires resisting undue influence and escalating ethical pressure to appropriate governance bodies.

 

Q12. (Confidentiality – Accidental Disclosure)

An auditor accidentally shares sensitive audit findings with an unauthorized employee.

Which principle is breached?

A. Integrity

B. Objectivity

C. Confidentiality

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Intent is irrelevant. Confidentiality applies to careless or accidental disclosure as well.

 

Q13. (Due Professional Care vs Proficiency – Examiner Trap)

An experienced auditor fails to expand testing despite red flags due to time constraints.

Which standard is primarily violated?

A. Proficiency

B. Integrity

C. Due Professional Care

D. Independence

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The auditor has knowledge but fails to apply reasonable diligence and judgment, violating due professional care.

 

Q14. (Independence – Consulting Engagements)

Which consulting activity is most likely to impair independence?

A. Advising on risk assessment methodology

B. Facilitating control self-assessment workshops

C. Designing controls and later auditing them

D. Training staff on internal controls

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Designing controls creates a self-review threat, impairing independence unless strictly managed.

 

Q15. (Integrated Ethics Question – High Difficulty)

An internal auditor with strong technical skills intentionally withholds unfavorable findings, accepts gifts, and uses insider information socially.

Which statement best summarizes the situation?

A. Only confidentiality is violated

B. Only objectivity is impaired

C. Multiple ethical principles are violated

D. Only independence is compromised

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario violates integrity (withholding facts), objectivity (gifts), and confidentiality (insider information) simultaneously—common CIA exam integration.

 

🔑 CIA EXAM TIP

Integrity = honesty & courage

Objectivity = unbiased mindset + appearance

Independence = organizational freedom

Proficiency = knowledge + skills

Confidentiality = protect & not misuse info

 

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Section B…. 50MCQ…

 

CIA PART 1 – MCQs (50 Questions)

Topics Covered:

Integrity • Objectivity • Independence • Proficiency • Confidentiality • Due Professional Care • Code of Ethics

 

Q1

An internal auditor knowingly omits an immaterial error because management assures it will be corrected later.

The primary ethical violation is of:

A. Objectivity

B. Independence

C. Integrity

D. Proficiency

Answer: C

Reason: Deliberate omission = lack of honesty, regardless of materiality.

 

Q2

An auditor audits a process they designed three years ago but fully discloses this to the CAE.

Which statement is MOST accurate?

A. Independence is impaired

B. Objectivity threat exists and safeguards are required

C. No ethical issue exists

D. Confidentiality is violated

Answer: B

 

Q3

An auditor accepts a low-value promotional item during an audit.

Which factor MOST determines ethical acceptability?

A. Value of the item

B. Local law

C. Appearance of impaired objectivity

D. Timing of acceptance

Answer: C

 

Q4

An internal auditor reports functionally to the audit committee but administratively to the CFO.

Which principle is BEST preserved?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Independence

D. Confidentiality

Answer: C

 

Q5

An auditor delays issuing a report to allow management time to “prepare explanations.”

This MOST directly violates:

A. Confidentiality

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. Proficiency

Answer: B

 

Q6

An internal auditor uses professional skepticism but lacks technical knowledge in cybersecurity.

Which standard is MOST compromised?

A. Due Professional Care

B. Proficiency

C. Objectivity

D. Independence

Answer: B

 

Q7

An auditor refuses an engagement due to family relationships with the auditee.

This action BEST supports:

A. Integrity

B. Independence

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: C

 

Q8

An auditor shares audit results internally with unauthorized staff to “raise awareness.”

Which principle is violated?

A. Integrity

B. Objectivity

C. Confidentiality

D. Independence

Answer: C

 

Q9

Which situation creates a self-review threat?

A. Rotating audit assignments

B. Auditing previously designed controls

C. Reporting to senior management

D. Using audit software

Answer: B

 

Q10

An auditor knowingly uses outdated audit standards.

This violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: A

 

Q11

Management pressures an auditor to remove “harsh wording” but not findings.

The BEST response is to:

A. Agree for diplomacy

B. Escalate to governance

C. Delay the report

D. Accept wording change

Answer: B

 

Q12

An auditor discloses fraud only to management despite board-level reporting requirements.

Which principle is MOST affected?

A. Objectivity

B. Independence

C. Integrity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: C

 

Q13

An internal auditor accepts consulting work designing risk controls.

What must be done later?

A. Audit immediately

B. Avoid auditing the area

C. Apply safeguards if auditing

D. Ignore consulting role

Answer: C

 

Q14

Which scenario BEST demonstrates impaired independence?

A. Prior employment in auditee

B. CAE reporting to CFO functionally

C. Familiarity with auditee staff

D. Consulting engagement

Answer: B

 

Q15

An auditor fails to expand testing despite red flags due to time pressure.

This violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Due Professional Care

C. Objectivity

D. Integrity

Answer: B

 

Q16

Using confidential audit data to advise a friend informally violates:

A. Independence

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Objectivity

Answer: C

 

Q17

Which action MOST preserves objectivity?

A. Declining gifts

B. Rotating audit staff

C. Reporting to audit committee

D. Maintaining competence

Answer: B

 

Q18

An auditor accepts management’s assurance without evidence.

Which standard is breached?

A. Objectivity

B. Proficiency

C. Due Professional Care

D. Confidentiality

Answer: C

 

Q19

Which is NOT part of integrity?

A. Honesty

B. Courage

C. Impartiality

D. Timeliness

Answer: C

(Impartiality relates to objectivity)

 

Q20

An auditor modifies conclusions to protect organizational reputation.

This violates:

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Independence

D. Proficiency

Answer: A

 

Q21

Accepting gifts AFTER audit completion is:

A. Always acceptable

B. Acceptable if disclosed

C. Acceptable if immaterial

D. Unacceptable due to appearance

Answer: D

 

Q22

Which BEST defines independence?

A. Mental attitude

B. Technical skill

C. Organizational freedom

D. Professional judgment

Answer: C

 

Q23

An auditor lacks knowledge but consults a specialist.

Which principle is upheld?

A. Integrity

B. Proficiency

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: B

 

Q24

Which creates an advocacy threat?

A. Training staff

B. Recommending vendors

C. Auditing transactions

D. Risk assessment

Answer: B

 

Q25

Failing to report immaterial fraud violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. Independence

Answer: B

 

Q26

An auditor leaks audit findings unintentionally.

Which principle applies?

A. Intent matters

B. Confidentiality applies regardless

C. Objectivity only

D. Integrity only

Answer: B

 

Q27

Professional skepticism MOST supports:

A. Integrity

B. Objectivity

C. Due Professional Care

D. Confidentiality

Answer: C

 

Q28

An auditor designs KPIs for management and later audits them.

This creates:

A. Familiarity threat

B. Self-interest threat

C. Self-review threat

D. Advocacy threat

Answer: C

 

Q29

Which is the BEST safeguard for objectivity?

A. Disclosure

B. Rotation

C. Supervision

D. All of the above

Answer: D

 

Q30

An auditor refuses to change findings despite CEO pressure.

This BEST demonstrates:

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Proficiency

D. Confidentiality

Answer: B

 

Q31

Which situation MOST threatens confidentiality?

A. Internal escalation

B. Audit committee reporting

C. Social discussion

D. Legal disclosure

Answer: C

 

Q32

An auditor relies on management representations alone.

This violates:

A. Integrity

B. Due Professional Care

C. Independence

D. Confidentiality

Answer: B

 

Q33

Independence is primarily a function of:

A. Behavior

B. Ethics

C. Reporting structure

D. Competence

Answer: C

 

Q34

Which activity is LEAST likely to impair objectivity?

A. Consulting

B. Prior employment

C. Staff rotation

D. Close relationships

Answer: C

 

Q35

Using audit results to negotiate salary violates:

A. Confidentiality

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. All of the above

Answer: D

 

Q36

An auditor knowingly issues a misleading report.

This violates:

A. Objectivity only

B. Integrity only

C. Confidentiality only

D. Multiple principles

Answer: D

 

Q37

Proficiency requires:

A. Initial qualification only

B. Continuous development

C. Management approval

D. Audit experience only

Answer: B

 

Q38

Which threat arises from personal relationships?

A. Self-review

B. Familiarity

C. Advocacy

D. Intimidation

Answer: B

 

Q39

Which is a core duty of confidentiality?

A. Sharing lessons learned

B. Preventing misuse of info

C. Full transparency

D. Public disclosure

Answer: B

 

Q40

Time pressure NEVER justifies violating:

A. Integrity

B. Proficiency

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: A

 

Q41

An auditor audits an area under performance incentives.

Which threat arises?

A. Advocacy

B. Self-interest

C. Familiarity

D. Intimidation

Answer: B

 

Q42

Which is MOST aligned with due professional care?

A. Speed

B. Compliance

C. Reasonable assurance

D. Absolute assurance

Answer: C

 

Q43

Ethical behavior is BEST described as:

A. Rule-based

B. Situation-based

C. Principle-based

D. Outcome-based

Answer: C

 

Q44

An auditor ignores minor policy breaches.

This MOST violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. Objectivity

Answer: C

 

Q45

Which safeguard addresses independence threats?

A. Peer review

B. Training

C. Reporting to board

D. Documentation

Answer: C

 

Q46

Which BEST defines objectivity?

A. Neutral reporting

B. Unbiased mental attitude

C. Organizational freedom

D. Technical expertise

Answer: B

 

Q47

An auditor uses audit info for personal gain.

Which principles are violated?

A. Confidentiality only

B. Integrity only

C. Objectivity only

D. Multiple principles

Answer: D

 

Q48

Which is NOT a confidentiality exception?

A. Legal obligation

B. Professional duty

C. Personal judgment

D. Regulatory requirement

Answer: C

 

Q49

Which MOST threatens integrity?

A. Bias

B. Dishonesty

C. Incompetence

D. Familiarity

Answer: B

 

Q50

An auditor faces ethical conflict. FIRST step?

A. Resign

B. Ignore

C. Escalate through governance

D. External disclosure

Answer: C

 

🔥 CIA EXAM STRATEGY

Integrity = honesty even when inconvenient

Objectivity = mindset + appearance

Independence = reporting line

Proficiency ≠ due care (knowledge vs application)

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MCQ questions on Financial statement interpretation

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MCQs: Liquidity, Solvency, Leverage, Financial Analysis & Policies

(US CMA Part 2 | ACCA FM Level – Moderate to Difficult)

 

1. Liquidity vs Solvency

1. A company has a current ratio of 2.5 but consistently defaults on long-term loan installments. This indicates: A. Strong liquidity and solvency

B. Weak liquidity and weak solvency

C. Strong liquidity but weak solvency

D. Weak liquidity but strong solvency

Answer: 

 

2. Liquidity Crunch

2. Which situation BEST describes a liquidity crunch? A. Negative retained earnings

B. High debt-equity ratio

C. Profitable firm unable to meet short-term obligations

D. Declining market share

Answer: 

 

3. Operating Leverage

3. High operating leverage implies: A. High variable costs

B. High financial risk

C. High fixed operating costs

D. Low contribution margin

Answer: 

 

4. Financial Leverage

4. Financial leverage magnifies: A. Sales volatility

B. Operating risk

C. Earnings per share variability

D. Contribution margin

Answer: 

 

5. Combined Leverage

5. A firm with high operating leverage and high financial leverage is MOST exposed to: A. Market risk

B. Liquidity risk

C. Total business risk

D. Currency risk

Answer: 

 

6. Trading on Equity

6. Trading on equity is successful when: A. Cost of debt > ROCE

B. ROCE > Cost of debt

C. Debt is interest-free

D. Equity capital is zero

Answer: 

 

7. Debt Trap

7. A company is said to be in a debt trap when: A. Debt increases profitability

B. New debt is used to repay old debt interest

C. Equity exceeds debt

D. Interest coverage ratio improves

Answer: 

 

8. Capital Gearing

8. A highly geared company means: A. More equity than debt

B. More debt than equity

C. No preference shares

D. High liquidity

Answer: 

 

9. High Financial Leverage

9. High financial leverage is MOST risky during: A. Inflation

B. Stable sales

C. Economic downturn

D. Low interest rates

Answer: 

 

10. Financial Flexibility

10. Financial flexibility refers to a firm’s ability to: A. Increase dividend payout

B. Change accounting policies

C. Raise funds at reasonable cost when needed

D. Eliminate all debt

Answer: 

 

11. Risk Owner

11. In enterprise risk management, the risk owner is: A. External auditor

B. Internal auditor

C. Person responsible for managing the risk

D. Board chairman

Answer: 

 

12. Operational Excellence

12. Operational excellence primarily improves: A. Capital structure

B. Cost efficiency and process reliability

C. Dividend yield

D. Market capitalization

Answer: 

 

13. Quality of Revenue

13. High quality of revenue means revenue is: A. Rapidly growing

B. Based on cash sales and core operations

C. Derived from one-time events

D. Earned through accounting estimates

Answer: 

 

14. Horizontal Analysis

14. Horizontal analysis compares: A. Line items as a percentage of sales

B. Financial data across time periods

C. Actual vs budget

D. Industry averages

Answer: 

 

15. Vertical Analysis / Common-Size Statement

15. In a common-size income statement: A. All items are shown as a percentage of total assets

B. All items are shown as a percentage of equity

C. All items are shown as a percentage of sales

D. Only expenses are standardized

Answer: 

 

16. Interpretation of Financial Statements

16. A rising gross profit margin but falling net profit margin suggests: A. Improved cost control

B. Higher operating or financing expenses

C. Better pricing power

D. Lower tax rates

Answer: 

 

17. Profitability vs Liquidity Trade-off

17. Holding excessive cash balances will generally: A. Increase profitability

B. Reduce liquidity

C. Reduce profitability

D. Increase financial leverage

Answer: 

 

18. Current Performance

18. The ratio MOST relevant to assess current performance: A. Debt-equity ratio

B. Current ratio

C. EPS

D. Asset turnover

Answer: 

 

19. EPS

19. EPS measures: A. Cash available to shareholders

B. Market value of equity

C. Profit attributable to each equity share

D. Dividend paid per share

Answer: 

 

20. Diluted EPS

20. Diluted EPS assumes: A. No conversion of securities

B. Only equity shares outstanding

C. Conversion of all dilutive potential shares

D. Only options are exercised

Answer: 

 

21. Dilutive Securities

21. Which is MOST likely to dilute EPS? A. Convertible debentures

B. Preference shares (non-convertible)

C. Treasury shares

D. Redeemable bonds

Answer: 

 

22. Dividend Policy

22. According to Modigliani–Miller (without taxes): A. Dividend policy affects firm value

B. Dividend policy is irrelevant

C. Higher dividends increase value

D. Retention always increases value

Answer: 

 

23. Residual Dividend Policy

23. Under residual dividend policy, dividends are paid: A. At fixed percentage of profit

B. After financing all acceptable investments

C. Only in loss years

D. Before capital budgeting

Answer: 

 

24. Operating Policy

24. Operating policies primarily affect: A. Capital structure

B. Cost behavior and margins

C. Dividend payout

D. Debt covenants

Answer: 

 

25. Financial Policy

25. Financial policies mainly determine: A. Product pricing

B. Production efficiency

C. Capital structure and dividend decisions

D. Inventory valuation

Answer: 

 

26. Inventory Turnover (Low)

26. A low inventory turnover may be due to: A. Strong demand

B. Over-stocking or obsolete inventory

C. High COGS

D. Low selling prices

Answer: 

 

27. Solvency Ratio

27. Which ratio BEST measures long-term solvency? A. Current ratio

B. Quick ratio

C. Debt-equity ratio

D. Inventory turnover

Answer: 

 

28. Interest Coverage

28. Declining interest coverage ratio indicates: A. Improved liquidity

B. Higher financial risk

C. Lower leverage

D. Better profitability

Answer: 

 

29. Capital Structure

29. An optimal capital structure is one that: A. Eliminates risk

B. Maximizes cost of capital

C. Minimizes WACC and maximizes firm value

D. Uses only equity

Answer: 

 

30. Gross Profit vs Net Income

30. Gross profit excludes: A. Operating expenses

B. Cost of goods sold

C. Selling expenses

D. Administrative expenses

Answer: 

 

31. Liquidity Improvement

31. Which action improves liquidity but may hurt profitability? A. Extending credit to customers

B. Holding higher cash balances

C. Increasing leverage

D. Accelerating depreciation

Answer: 

 

32. Financial Statement Red Flag

32. Which is a red flag for earnings quality? A. Stable operating cash flows

B. Rising revenue with falling cash flow

C. Consistent margins

D. Conservative accounting

Answer: 

 

33. Profitability Ratio

33. ROCE improves when: A. Capital employed increases faster than EBIT

B. EBIT increases with stable capital employed

C. Debt replaces equity without EBIT change

D. Inventory increases

Answer: 

 

34. Leverage & EPS

34. Financial leverage increases EPS when: A. EBIT < interest

B. EBIT > interest

C. Sales decrease

D. Tax rate increases

Answer: 

 

35. Common-Size Balance Sheet

35. In a common-size balance sheet: A. Assets are shown as % of total assets

B. Liabilities are shown as % of sales

C. Equity is ignored

D. Only current assets are standardized

Answer: 

 

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Friday, December 19, 2025

Mocktest CIA Part 1 objectivity Integrity Independence Proficiency Total MCQ 65etc

 


Below are challenging, examinable, essay-based MCQ questions with on Objectivity, Integrity, Independence, Proficiency, Confidentiality, and Due Professional Care, strictly aligned with the CIA Part 1 (Foundations of Internal Auditing) – 2025 syllabus.Gmsisuccess

Total MCQ Questions ⁉️ 65 Time Allowed:1 hour Performance Criteria:90%+

 

CIA PART 1 – ETHICS & ATTRIBUTE STANDARDS

(Objectivity • Integrity • Independence • Proficiency • Confidentiality)

 

Section A…. 15 MCQ Essay based…

Q1.

An internal auditor discovers minor but recurring policy violations by a department head who is also a close mentor and instrumental in the auditor’s career growth. The violations are unlikely to be material individually but indicate a pattern of non-compliance. The auditor considers excluding these findings to avoid damaging the relationship.

Which principle of the IIA Code of Ethics is most directly compromised if the auditor omits the findings?

A. Independence

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer:

 

Q2. (Objectivity vs Independence – Exam Favorite Trap

An internal auditor is assigned to audit the procurement function. Two years ago, the auditor worked in the same function but had no involvement in current procurement decisions. Management insists that independence is impaired.

What is the best CIA-compliant conclusion?

A. Independence is impaired because of prior employment

B. Objectivity is impaired but independence is not

C. Neither independence nor objectivity is impaired

D. Independence is not impaired, but objectivity should be assessed and safeguards applied

Correct Answer: 

 

Q3. 

During an engagement, an internal auditor uncovers evidence of illegal data manipulation. Senior management instructs the auditor not to disclose the information externally to avoid reputational damage. No law explicitly requires reporting.

What is the auditor’s most appropriate action?

A. Maintain confidentiality and follow management’s instruction

B. Report the issue only if required by law

C. Escalate internally according to governance protocols

D. Immediately disclose the issue to regulators

Correct Answer: 

Q4. 

An internal auditor accepts an IT audit engagement despite limited technical knowledge, believing general audit skills are sufficient. The auditor does not consult specialists and fails to identify critical system vulnerabilities.

Which standard is primarily violated?

A. Objectivity

B. Proficiency

C. Independence

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: 

Q5. 

The Chief Audit Executive (CAE) reports administratively and functionally to the CFO. The CFO frequently modifies audit scopes and delays issuing reports.

Which CIA principle is most seriously threatened?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Independence

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: 


Q6. 

An internal auditor accepts a high-value gift from an auditee after completing an engagement. The audit report was already issued and unbiased.

What is the best CIA-based assessment?

A. Acceptable because the audit is complete

B. Acceptable if disclosed to management

C. Unacceptable as it impairs objectivity in appearance

D. Acceptable if local company policy allows it

Correct Answer: 

 

Q7. 

An auditor reports control weaknesses accurately but deliberately delays issuing the report to align with management’s preferred timing for public disclosures.

Which ethical principle is violated?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: 


Q8. 

An internal auditor uses non-public audit information to advise a friend to avoid investing in the organization.

Which action best describes this situation?

A. Acceptable personal judgment

B. Breach of confidentiality

C. Lack of objectivity only

D. Violation only if financial gain occurs

Correct answer 

9.Which situation best demonstrates non-compliance with proficiency standards?

A. Auditor relies on past expertience instead of updated standards

B. Auditor seeks expert help for complex valuation

C. Auditor attends regular professional training

D. Auditor uses automated audit tools

Correct Answer: 

 

Q10. (Objectivity vs Advocacy – Very Tricky)

An internal auditor recommends a specific vendor solution during consulting work and later audits the implementation of that solution.

What is the most appropriate CIA position?

A. No issue since consulting was allowed

B. Objectivity is impaired and safeguards are required

C. Independence is automatically impaired

D. Confidentiality is violated

Correct Answer: 

Q11. 

Management pressures an internal auditor to soften language in an audit report to “maintain harmony,” though findings remain factually correct.

What should the auditor do?

A. Modify wording to maintain relationships

B. Refuse and escalate to governance

C. Accept changes if conclusions remain same

D. Delay report issuance

Correct Answer: 

 

Q12. 

An auditor accidentally shares sensitive audit findings with an unauthorized employee.

Which principle is breached?

A. Integrity

B. Objectivity

C. Confidentiality

D. Proficiency

Correct Answer: 

Q13. 

An experienced auditor fails to expand testing despite red flags due to time constraints.

Which standard is primarily violated?

A. Proficiency

B. Integrity

C. Due Professional Care

D. Independence

Correct Answer: 

 

Q14. 

Which consulting activity is most likely to impair independence?

A. Advising on risk assessment methodology

B. Facilitating control self-assessment workshops

C. Designing controls and later auditing them

D. Training staff on internal controls

Correct Answer: 

 

Q15. 

An internal auditor with strong technical skills intentionally withholds unfavorable findings, accepts gifts, and uses insider information socially.

Which statement best summarizes the situation?

A. Only confidentiality is violated

B. Only objectivity is impaired

C. Multiple ethical principles are violated

D. Only independence is compromised

Correct Answer: 

 

🔑 CIA EXAM TIP

Integrity = honesty & courage

Objectivity = unbiased mindset + appearance

Independence = organizational freedom

Proficiency = knowledge + skills

Confidentiality = protect & not misuse info

 

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Section B….

CIA PART 1 – MCQs (50 Questions)

Topics Covered:

Integrity • Objectivity • Independence • Proficiency • Confidentiality • Due Professional Care • Code of Ethics

 

Q1

An internal auditor knowingly omits an immaterial error because management assures it will be corrected later.

The primary ethical violation is of:

A. Objectivity

B. Independence

C. Integrity

D. Proficiency

Answer: 

 

Q2

An auditor audits a process they designed three years ago but fully discloses this to the CAE.

Which statement is MOST accurate?

A. Independence is impaired

B. Objectivity threat exists and safeguards are required

C. No ethical issue exists

D. Confidentiality is violated

Answer: 

 

Q3

An auditor accepts a low-value promotional item during an audit.

Which factor MOST determines ethical acceptability?

A. Value of the item

B. Local law

C. Appearance of impaired objectivity

D. Timing of acceptance

Answer: 

 

Q4

An internal auditor reports functionally to the audit committee but administratively to the CFO.

Which principle is BEST preserved?

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Independence

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q5

An auditor delays issuing a report to allow management time to “prepare explanations.”

This MOST directly violates:

A. Confidentiality

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. Proficiency

Answer: 

 

Q6

An internal auditor uses professional skepticism but lacks technical knowledge in cybersecurity.

Which standard is MOST compromised?

A. Due Professional Care

B. Proficiency

C. Objectivity

D. Independence

Answer: 

 

Q7

An auditor refuses an engagement due to family relationships with the auditee.

This action BEST supports:

A. Integrity

B. Independence

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q8

An auditor shares audit results internally with unauthorized staff to “raise awareness.”

Which principle is violated?

A. Integrity

B. Objectivity

C. Confidentiality

D. Independence

Answer: 

 

Q9

Which situation creates a self-review threat?

A. Rotating audit assignments

B. Auditing previously designed controls

C. Reporting to senior management

D. Using audit software

Answer: 

 

Q10

An auditor knowingly uses outdated audit standards.

This violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q11

Management pressures an auditor to remove “harsh wording” but not findings.

The BEST response is to:

A. Agree for diplomacy

B. Escalate to governance

C. Delay the report

D. Accept wording change

Answer: 

 

Q12

An auditor discloses fraud only to management despite board-level reporting requirements.

Which principle is MOST affected?

A. Objectivity

B. Independence

C. Integrity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q13

An internal auditor accepts consulting work designing risk controls.

What must be done later?

A. Audit immediately

B. Avoid auditing the area

C. Apply safeguards if auditing

D. Ignore consulting role

Answer: 

 

Q14

Which scenario BEST demonstrates impaired independence?

A. Prior employment in auditee

B. CAE reporting to CFO functionally

C. Familiarity with auditee staff

D. Consulting engagement

Answer: 

 

Q15

An auditor fails to expand testing despite red flags due to time pressure.

This violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Due Professional Care

C. Objectivity

D. Integrity

Answer: 

 

Q16

Using confidential audit data to advise a friend informally violates:

A. Independence

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Objectivity

Answer: 

 

Q17

Which action MOST preserves objectivity?

A. Declining gifts

B. Rotating audit staff

C. Reporting to audit committee

D. Maintaining competence

Answer: 

 

Q18

An auditor accepts management’s assurance without evidence.

Which standard is breached?

A. Objectivity

B. Proficiency

C. Due Professional Care

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q19

Which is NOT part of integrity?

A. Honesty

B. Courage

C. Impartiality

D. Timeliness

Answer: 

 

Q20

An auditor modifies conclusions to protect organizational reputation.

This violates:

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Independence

D. Proficiency

Answer: 

 

Q21

Accepting gifts AFTER audit completion is:

A. Always acceptable

B. Acceptable if disclosed

C. Acceptable if immaterial

D. Unacceptable due to appearance

Answer: 

 

Q22

Which BEST defines independence?

A. Mental attitude

B. Technical skill

C. Organizational freedom

D. Professional judgment

Answer: 

 

Q23

An auditor lacks knowledge but consults a specialist.

Which principle is upheld?

A. Integrity

B. Proficiency

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q24

Which creates an advocacy threat?

A. Training staff

B. Recommending vendors

C. Auditing transactions

D. Risk assessment

Answer: 

 

Q25

Failing to report immaterial fraud violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. Independence

Answer: 

 

Q26

An auditor leaks audit findings unintentionally.

Which principle applies?

A. Intent matters

B. Confidentiality applies regardless

C. Objectivity only

D. Integrity only

Answer: 

 

Q27

Professional skepticism MOST supports:

A. Integrity

B. Objectivity

C. Due Professional Care

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q28

An auditor designs KPIs for management and later audits them.

This creates:

A. Familiarity threat

B. Self-interest threat

C. Self-review threat

D. Advocacy threat

Answer: 

 

Q29

Which is the BEST safeguard for objectivity?

A. Disclosure

B. Rotation

C. Supervision

D. All of the above

Answer: 

 

Q30

An auditor refuses to change findings despite CEO pressure.

This BEST demonstrates:

A. Objectivity

B. Integrity

C. Proficiency

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q31

Which situation MOST threatens confidentiality?

A. Internal escalation

B. Audit committee reporting

C. Social discussion

D. Legal disclosure

Answer: 

 

Q32

An auditor relies on management representations alone.

This violates:

A. Integrity

B. Due Professional Care

C. Independence

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q33

Independence is primarily a function of:

A. Behavior

B. Ethics

C. Reporting structure

D. Competence

Answer: 

 

Q34

Which activity is LEAST likely to impair objectivity?

A. Consulting

B. Prior employment

C. Staff rotation

D. Close relationships

Answer: 

 

Q35

Using audit results to negotiate salary violates:

A. Confidentiality

B. Integrity

C. Objectivity

D. All of the above

Answer: 

 

Q36

An auditor knowingly issues a misleading report.

This violates:

A. Objectivity only

B. Integrity only

C. Confidentiality only

D. Multiple principles

Answer: 

 

Q37

Proficiency requires:

A. Initial qualification only

B. Continuous development

C. Management approval

D. Audit experience only

Answer: 

 

Q38

Which threat arises from personal relationships?

A. Self-review

B. Familiarity

C. Advocacy

D. Intimidation

Answer: 

 

Q39

Which is a core duty of confidentiality?

A. Sharing lessons learned

B. Preventing misuse of info

C. Full transparency

D. Public disclosure

Answer: 

 

Q40

Time pressure NEVER justifies violating:

A. Integrity

B. Proficiency

C. Objectivity

D. Confidentiality

Answer: 

 

Q41

An auditor audits an area under performance incentives.

Which threat arises?

A. Advocacy

B. Self-interest

C. Familiarity

D. Intimidation

Answer: 

 

Q42

Which is MOST aligned with due professional care?

A. Speed

B. Compliance

C. Reasonable assurance

D. Absolute assurance

Answer: 

 

Q43

Ethical behavior is BEST described as:

A. Rule-based

B. Situation-based

C. Principle-based

D. Outcome-based

Answer: 

 

Q44

An auditor ignores minor policy breaches.

This MOST violates:

A. Proficiency

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. Objectivity

Answer: 

 

Q45

Which safeguard addresses independence threats?

A. Peer review

B. Training

C. Reporting to board

D. Documentation

Answer: 

 

Q46

Which BEST defines objectivity?

A. Neutral reporting

B. Unbiased mental attitude

C. Organizational freedom

D. Technical expertise

Answer: 

 

Q47

An auditor uses audit info for personal gain.

Which principles are violated?

A. Confidentiality only

B. Integrity only

C. Objectivity only

D. Multiple principles

Answer: 

 

Q48

Which is NOT a confidentiality exception?

A. Legal obligation

B. Professional duty

C. Personal judgment

D. Regulatory requirement

Answer: 

 

Q49

Which MOST threatens integrity?

A. Bias

B. Dishonesty

C. Incompetence

D. Familiarity

Answer: 

 

Q50

An auditor faces ethical conflict. FIRST step?

A. Resign

B. Ignore

C. Escalate through governance

D. External disclosure

Answer: 

 

🔥 CIA EXAM STRATEGY

Integrity = honesty even when inconvenient

Objectivity = mindset + appearance

Independence = reporting line

Proficiency ≠ due care (knowledge vs application)

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