Casebased question ⁉️ Manufacturing operations & irregularities

 Below are Case-Based Questions (CIA Part 1 style) on Functions of Different Departments in a Manufacturing Organization, focusing on internal audit observations, discrepancies, irregularities, risk owners, documents, and controls.

Case-Based Questions – Manufacturing Departments (CIA Part 1 Style)

Case 1: Unauthorized Purchase

During an internal audit of the procurement process, the auditor observed that several purchases of raw materials were made without an approved Purchase Order (PO). The materials were received and recorded in inventory based only on supplier invoices.

Question

Which control weakness is MOST evident in this situation?

A. Lack of vendor evaluation

B. Absence of purchase authorization control

C. Ineffective production scheduling

D. Poor inventory valuation method

✅ Answer: 

Case 2: Inventory Discrepancy

During a warehouse audit, the internal auditor noticed that the physical inventory count of raw materials was significantly lower than the quantities recorded in the inventory system. Investigation revealed that materials were frequently issued to production without a Material Requisition Note (MRN).

Question

Which control should be implemented to reduce this risk?

A. Increase production capacity

B. Require authorized material requisition before issuing materials

C. Reduce supplier lead time

D. Increase marketing budget

✅ Answer: 

Case 3: Quality Control Failure

An internal audit review found that defective finished goods were shipped to customers because quality inspection reports were not completed before dispatch.

Question

Who should be the primary risk owner for this issue?

A. Procurement Manager

B. Quality Assurance Manager

C. HR Manager

D. Sales Manager

✅ Answer: 

Case 4: Segregation of Duties Issue

During an audit of the purchasing cycle, the auditor observed that the same employee creates purchase requisitions, approves purchase orders, and records supplier invoices.

Question

Which internal control principle is being violated?

A. Budgetary control

B. Segregation of duties

C. Preventive maintenance

D. Cost allocation

✅ Answer: 

Case 5: Production Planning Problem

Internal auditors observed frequent production delays due to shortages of critical raw materials. The procurement department reported that they were not receiving timely production forecasts.

Question

Which department should provide the required information?

A. Human Resources

B. Production Planning Department

C. Finance Department

D. IT Department

✅ Answer:

Case 6: Obsolete Inventory

An internal audit identified large quantities of obsolete raw materials stored in the warehouse. There was no periodic review of slow-moving inventory.

Question

Which control would BEST mitigate this issue?

A. Increase safety stock levels

B. Implement periodic inventory review and aging analysis

C. Increase production capacity

D. Eliminate quality inspection

✅ Answer: 

Case 7: Payroll Irregularities

During an HR audit, the auditor discovered that some employees listed in the payroll register did not appear in the attendance records.

Question

This situation MOST likely indicates:

A. Production inefficiency

B. Ghost employees in payroll

C. Vendor fraud

D. Inventory theft

✅ Answer:

Case 8: Machine Downtime

The production department reported significant downtime due to machine breakdowns. Internal audit found that preventive maintenance schedules were not followed.

Question

Which department is responsible for managing this risk?

A. Maintenance Department

B. Sales Department

C. HR Department

D. Procurement Department

✅ Answer: 

Case 9: Unapproved Vendor

During the audit of procurement records, the internal auditor noticed that purchases were made from vendors not listed in the approved vendor database.

Question

What is the MOST appropriate control to prevent this risk?

A. Increase warehouse space

B. Restrict purchases to approved vendor list

C. Increase advertising budget

D. Reduce production output

✅ Answer: 

Case 10: Missing Shipping Documentation

Internal auditors observed that some finished goods shipments to customers lacked delivery challans or dispatch documentation.

Question

Which risk is MOST significant in this situation?

A. Marketing risk

B. Revenue recognition risk and shipment disputes

C. HR compliance risk

D. IT system failure

✅ Answer: 

Case 11: IT System Access

During an IT audit, it was discovered that warehouse staff had unrestricted access to modify inventory records in the ERP system.

Question

Which control should be implemented?

A. Remove ERP system

B. Implement role-based access controls

C. Increase warehouse staff

D. Increase production targets

✅ Answer:

Case 12: Sales Order Irregularity

Internal auditors found that some sales orders were processed without customer credit approval.

Question

Which department is responsible for managing this risk?

A. Credit Control / Finance Department

B. Production Department

C. Maintenance Department

D. IT Department

✅ Answer:

✅ These case-based questions are very similar to what appears in the

Certified Internal Auditor (CIA) Part 1 Exam

Topics: Internal Control, Risk Ownership, Governance, Operational Audit

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Manufacturing Organization Departments (Function,Risk Owner, Deliverables, Documents)

MCQs – Manufacturing Organization Departments (Function,Risk Owner, Deliverables, Documents)

Accounting Information System AIS

1.

Which department is primarily responsible for forecasting product demand and preparing sales budgets?

A. Production Department

B. Marketing / Sales Department

C. Finance Department

D. Human Resource Department

✅ Answer: 

2.

In a manufacturing organization, the risk owner for raw material quality risk is generally:

A. Finance Manager

B. Procurement Manager

C. Quality Control Manager

D. Sales Manager

✅ Answer:

3.

Which document is typically generated by the production department to authorize manufacturing of goods?

A. Sales Invoice

B. Production Order

C. Goods Receipt Note

D. Purchase Requisition

✅ Answer: 

4.

The primary deliverable of the procurement department is:

A. Finished goods

B. Purchased materials at optimal price and quality

C. Marketing campaign

D. Payroll processing

✅ Answer:

5.

Which document is issued by the store department when materials are issued to production?

A. Purchase Order

B. Material Requisition Note

C. Sales Order

D. Debit Note

✅ Answer: 

6.

Which department owns the risk related to employee turnover and skill shortages?

A. HR Department

B. Production Department

C. Procurement Department

D. Finance Department

✅ Answer: 

7.

Which department prepares the Bill of Materials (BOM)?

A. Engineering / Design Department

B. Finance Department

C. Marketing Department

D. HR Department

✅ Answer: 

8.

The primary deliverable of the quality assurance department is:

A. Employee training

B. Defect-free products

C. Vendor contracts

D. Sales forecast

✅ Answer: 

9.

Which document confirms that goods received from suppliers are inspected and accepted?

A. Goods Receipt Note (GRN)

B. Purchase Order

C. Sales Invoice

D. Production Schedule

✅ Answer: 

10.

Which department is responsible for machine maintenance and equipment reliability risk?

A. Maintenance Department

B. Sales Department

C. Finance Department

D. HR Department

✅ Answer:

11.

The risk owner for inventory obsolescence is usually:

A. Warehouse / Stores Manager

B. HR Manager

C. Sales Manager

D. Legal Department

✅ Answer:

12.

Which document authorizes procurement of raw materials from suppliers?

A. Purchase Order

B. Sales Order

C. Delivery Challan

D. Payroll Register

✅ Answer: 

13.

Which department prepares the master production schedule (MPS)?

A. Production Planning Department

B. Finance Department

C. HR Department

D. IT Department

✅ Answer: 

14.

The primary deliverable of the finance department is:

A. Product design

B. Financial statements and financial control

C. Raw materials

D. Marketing strategies

✅ Answer:

15.

Which document records finished goods transferred from production to warehouse?

A. Finished Goods Transfer Note

B. Purchase Requisition

C. Sales Contract

D. Credit Memo

✅ Answer:

16.

Which department is responsible for supplier evaluation and vendor risk management?

A. Procurement Department

B. Sales Department

C. HR Department

D. Production Department

✅ Answer:

17.

Which document is used to record defective products detected during inspection?

A. Non-Conformance Report (NCR)

B. Purchase Order

C. Sales Invoice

D. Payroll Record

✅ Answer: 

18.

The risk owner for workplace safety hazards is usually:

A. Health & Safety / Operations Manager

B. Sales Manager

C. Procurement Manager

D. Finance Manager

✅ Answer:

19.

Which department is responsible for processing customer orders and generating sales invoices?

A. Sales Department

B. Production Department

C. Maintenance Department

D. IT Department

✅ Answer: 

20.

Which document is used to track movement of goods from warehouse to customer?

A. Delivery Challan

B. Payroll Sheet

C. Purchase Requisition

D. Journal Voucher

✅ Answer: 

21.

Which department manages IT system risks and cybersecurity controls?

A. IT Department

B. Production Department

C. Procurement Department

D. Sales Department

✅ Answer:

22.

Which document is used by HR to record employee attendance and wages?

A. Time Sheet / Attendance Register

B. Purchase Order

C. Sales Contract

D. Production Order

✅ Answer: 

23.

The primary deliverable of the production department is:

A. Purchase orders

B. Finished goods produced efficiently

C. Employee training programs

D. Vendor contracts

✅ Answer: 

24.

Which department is responsible for cost accounting and variance analysis?

A. Finance / Cost Accounting Department

B. HR Department

C. Production Department

D. Marketing Department

✅ Answer: 

25.

Which document provides details of raw materials required to produce a product?

A. Bill of Materials (BOM)

B. Sales Invoice

C. Payroll Sheet

D. Delivery Note

✅ Answer

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Mocktest Financial statement

**25 US CMA Part 1 MCQs on Financial Reporting Topics** ANSWERS 

These multiple-choice questions focus on US CMA exam-style topics like income statements, dividends, stock events, cash flows, investments, ratios, accounting concepts, and more, drawing from US GAAP principles tested in Part 1 Section A.

### Income Statement & Equity Events

1. In a multi-step income statement, gross profit is calculated as:  

   A. Net sales minus operating expenses  

   B. Net sales minus cost of goods sold  

   C. Operating income minus taxes  

   D. Net income plus interest  

   **Answer: B** – Gross profit reflects sales less direct production costs.

2. A small stock dividend (under 20-25%) is recorded by debiting retained earnings at:  

   A. Par value of shares  

   B. Fair market value of shares  

   C. Book value per share  

   D. Zero impact on equity  

   **Answer: B** – Small stock dividends use fair value to reclassify from retained earnings to paid-in capital.

3. For a 2-for-1 stock split on $80/share stock paying $1 dividend, post-split price expectation if dividend stays $1:  

   A. Exactly $40  

   B. Above $40 if yield rises  

   C. Below $40  

   D. Unchanged at $80  

   **Answer: B** – Splits increase shares; unchanged dividend raises yield, potentially lifting price above $40

4. Preferred dividends are typically:  

   A. Variable like common dividends  

   B. Fixed percentage of par value  

   C. Paid after common dividends  

   D. Non-cumulative by default  

   **Answer: B** – Preferred stock has fixed dividend rates based on par, with priority over common.

5. A property dividend declares asset with book value $50, fair value $75 at declaration:  

   A. No gain/loss recognized  

   B. Gain of $25 recorded  

   C. Loss of $25 recorded  

   D. Fair value at distribution date  

   **Answer: B** – Property is remeasured to fair value at declaration, recognizing gain.

### Cash Flow Statement

6. A statement of cash flows helps evaluate a firm's:  

   A. Economic resources and obligations  

   B. Liquidity, solvency, financial flexibility  

   C. Insider stock trades  

   D. Operating income components  

   **Answer: B** – Cash flows assess cash generation for short- and long-term viability

7. Gain on sale of available-for-sale (AFS) securities is:  

   A. Added to net income in operating cash flows  

   B. Subtracted from net income in operating section  

   C. Included in investing inflows  

   D. Ignored in cash flow statement  

   **Answer: B** – Gains are in net income but non-operating; subtract to avoid double-counting investing inflow.

8. Cash flows from financing activities include:  

   A. Cash from customers  

   B. Proceeds from issuing shares or loans  

   C. Purchase of equipment  

   D. Collections of receivables  

   **Answer: B** – Financing covers equity/debt issuance, repayments, dividends.

9. Decrease in accounts receivable is:  

   A. Subtracted in operating cash flows (indirect)  

   B. Added in operating cash flows  

   C. Investing outflow  

   D. Financing inflow  

   **Answer: B** – Indicates cash collected beyond sales revenue.

10. Past period bad debt recovery in current year (direct method):  

    A. Operating inflow  

    B. Investing inflow  

    C. Financing inflow  

    D. Off the cash flow statement  

    **Answer: A** – Recovery is cash from operations.

### Investments & Losses

11. AFS investments are reported at:  

    A. Amortized cost  

    B. Fair value; unrealized gains/losses in OCI  

    C. Lower of cost or market  

    D. Historical cost only  

    **Answer: B** – Not trading or held-to-maturity; fair value with OCI impact.

12. Allowance for credit losses uses:  

    A. Direct write-off only  

    B. Percentage of sales or receivables aging  

    C. Historical cost adjustment  

    D. Cash basis estimation  

    **Answer: B** – Matches expected losses to revenues or receivables.

### Liquidity, Solvency, Leverage

13. Current ratio formula:  

    A. Cash / Current liabilities  

    B. Current assets / Current liabilities  

    C. (Current assets - Inventory) / Current liabilities  

    D. Operating cash flow / Current liabilities  

    **Answer: B** – Measures short-term liquidity.

14. Cash flow ratio assesses:  

    A. Solvency via operating cash / current liabilities  

    B. Leverage via debt/equity  

    C. Activity via inventory turns  

    D. Profitability via ROE  

    **Answer: A** – Operating cash coverage of short-term obligations.

15. Solvency best represented by:  

    A. Cash balance end of period  

    B. Operating cash flows  

    C. Investing cash flows  

    D. Financing cash flows  

    **Answer: B** – Internal generation shows long-term viability over borrowing.

### Concepts & Components

16. Accrual concept records expenses when:  

    A. Cash paid  

    B. Incurred, not necessarily paid  

    C. Profit is high  

    D. Tax due  

    **Answer: B** – Matches revenues and expenses in period earned/incurred.

17. Going concern assumption justifies:  

    A. Liquidation basis  

    B. Depreciation and current/noncurrent classification  

    C. Fair value for all assets  

    D. No asset impairments  

    **Answer: B** – Assumes continuity beyond year.

18. Historical cost concept uses:  

    A. Fair value at reporting  

    B. Original transaction cost  

    C. Inflated replacement cost  

    D. Future estimated value  

    **Answer: B** – Objective, verifiable basis.

19. Cash equivalents include:  

    A. Long-term investments  

    B. Highly liquid investments maturing within 3 months  

    C. Inventory  

    D. Accounts receivable  

    **Answer: B** – Short-term, low-risk holdings.

20. Capital maintenance (financial):  

    A. Physical capacity preserved  

    B. Nominal capital not reduced by distributions  

    C. Real purchasing power maintained  

    D. Residual equity focus  

    **Answer: B** – Profits available after maintaining invested capital.

### Advanced & Mixed

21. Principal-agent problem in separate entity concept:  

    A. Owners manage operations  

    B. Managers (agents) act for owners (principals)  

    C. No separation of firm and owners  

    D. Consolidated reporting only  

    **Answer: B** – Agency theory addresses conflicts.

22. Recovery of prior bad debt:  

    A. Credit to allowance, debit cash; no P&L  

    B. Income in current year  

    C. Balance sheet only  

    D. Off-balance sheet  

    **Answer: A** – Reverses prior allowance; excess as income if applicable.

23. Components of cash & equivalents exclude:  

    A. Treasury bills <90 days  

    B. Commercial paper  

    C. Equity investments  

    D. Money market funds  

    **Answer: C** – Equity is not cash-like.

24. Leverage ratio example:  

    A. Current ratio  

    B. Debt-to-equity  

    C. Inventory turnover  

    D. Gross margin  

    **Answer: B** – Measures debt financing vs. equity.

25. Residual capital maintenance:  

    A. Physical assets at original cost  

    B. Distributions from residual equity after maintenance  

    C. Nominal dividends only  

    D. No distributions allowed  

    **Answer: B** – Profits beyond capital recovery.

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Integrated Case based questions ⁉️

 Here are integrated, case-based questions (MCQ, Fill-in-the-Blank, Drag & Drop style) covering Budgetary Control, Variance Analysis, Relevant Costing, Internal Control, Risk Assessment, Governance, AIS, Job Order Costing, ABC, and Strategic Management — CMA/CIA level difficulty.

🔹 CASE 1 – Budgetary Control & Variance Analysis

Scenario:

A company budgeted production of 10,000 units.

Standard material: 5 kg per unit @ $4/kg

Actual production: 9,000 units

Actual material used: 48,000 kg

Actual price: $4.50/kg

Q1 (MCQ)

Material Price Variance is:

A. $24,000 U

B. $24,000 F

C. $20,000 U

D. $20,000 F

Answer: 

Q2 (Fill in the Blank)

Material Usage Variance = ________ (F/U)

Answer: $.....

Q3 (MCQ – Control Concept)

The MOST appropriate control to prevent material usage variance is:

A. Segregation of duties

B. Standard cost revision

C. Engineering efficiency review

D. External audit

Answer: 

🔹 CASE 2 – Relevant Costing Decision

Scenario:

A division has idle capacity. Variable cost per unit = $30.

Fixed costs = $200,000 (unavoidable).

Special order price = $35 for 5,000 units.

Regular selling price = $50.

Q4 (MCQ)

Should the company accept the special order?

A. Yes, because contribution = $25,000

B. No, because price < regular price

C. No, because fixed cost per unit exceeds price

D. Yes, because fixed cost is relevant

Answer: 

Q5 (Fill in the Blank)

The relevant cost per unit is ________.

Answer: $....

Q6 (MCQ – Strategic Angle)

Rejecting the order WITHOUT considering idle capacity violates which principle?

A. Goal congruence

B. Relevant costing

C. Agency theory

D. Responsibility accounting

Answer: 

🔹 CASE 3 – Internal Control & Risk Assessment

Scenario:

ABC Ltd. allows the same employee to:

Approve vendors

Record purchases

Process payments

Q7 (MCQ)

This represents violation of:

A. Authorization control

B. Segregation of duties

C. Preventive control

D. Detective control

Answer: 

Q8 (Fill in the Blank)

This weakness increases risk of ________ fraud.

Answer: 

Q9 (MCQ – Risk Response)

The BEST immediate control improvement is:

A. External audit

B. Vendor rotation

C. Segregating authorization and payment functions

D. Increasing budget

Answer: 

🔹 CASE 4 – Job Order Costing

Scenario:

Job 101:

Direct Material = $20,000

Direct Labor = $15,000

OH rate = 150% of Direct Labor

Q10 (Fill in the Blank)

Applied overhead = ________.

150% × ...... = ...... 

Answer: $..,.......

Q11 (MCQ)

Total Job Cost =

A. 57,500

B. 52,500

C. 35,000

D. 22,500

Total = ......... + ........ + .......= ........

Answer: 

Q12 (MCQ – Control Perspective)

Underapplied overhead indicates:

A. Overestimation of activity

B. Inefficient labor

C. Actual overhead > applied overhead

D. Budget variance only

Answer: 

🔹 CASE 5 – Activity Based Costing (ABC)

Scenario:

Two products:

Product X (high volume)

Product Y (low volume, complex setup)

Traditional costing allocates overhead based on labor hours. ABC uses setup hours and inspection hours.

Q13 (MCQ)

Under traditional costing, which product is MOST likely overcosted?

A. Product Y

B. Product X

C. Both equally

D. Neither

Answer: 

Q14 (Fill in the Blank)

ABC improves costing accuracy by identifying ________.

Answer: 

Q15 (MCQ – Strategic Decision)

ABC is MOST useful when:

A. Overhead is insignificant

B. Product diversity is low

C. Overhead is high and products vary

D. Only one product is produced

Answer: 

🔹 CASE 6 – Governance & Strategic Management

Scenario:

The Board of Directors approves risk appetite but does not monitor risk exposure reports.

Q16 (MCQ)

This reflects weakness in:

A. Risk identification

B. Risk assessment

C. Risk monitoring

D. Risk avoidance

Answer: 

Q17 (Fill in the Blank)

Approving risk appetite is part of ________ governance responsibility.

Answer: 

Q18 (MCQ – Agency Issue)

Failure to monitor management increases:

A. Moral hazard

B. Diversification

C. Operating leverage

D. Contribution margin

Answer: 

🔹 CASE 7 – Accounting Information System (AIS)

Scenario:

Company uses batch processing. Errors are detected after month-end.

Q19 (MCQ)

Switching to real-time processing would improve:

A. Detective controls

B. Preventive controls

C. Timeliness of information

D. Audit trail elimination

Answer: 

Q20 (Drag & Drop – Match Control Type)

Match the control to type:

Control Type

Password authentication Preventive

Bank reconciliation Detective

Backup server Corrective

Internal audit Detective

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Mocktest.Basic concept. Financial account, Cost Accounting Management accounting performance measurement, statistics stretegical management technology Data Analytics etc

 Here are 50 MCQs covering:

• Basic Financial Accounting

• Basic Cost Accounting

• Basic Business Acumen

• Basic Internal Control

 

📘 BASIC FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING (1–15)

1. Which of the following best defines an asset?

A. A future obligation

B. A past expense

C. A resource controlled by the entity expected to provide future economic benefit

D. Owner’s investment

Answer: 

 

2. Revenue is recognized when:

A. Cash is received

B. Goods are produced

C. Performance obligation is satisfied

D. Invoice is raised

Answer: 

 

3. Which of the following is NOT a liability?

A. Accounts payable

B. Unearned revenue

C. Accrued expense

D. Prepaid insurance

Answer: 

 

4. Accrual accounting requires:

A. Cash basis reporting

B. Matching revenues with related expenses

C. Ignoring outstanding expenses

D. Recording only paid transactions

Answer: 

 

5. Depreciation primarily represents:

A. Market value decline

B. Cash outflow

C. Allocation of asset cost

D. Replacement value

Answer: 

 

6. Gross profit equals:

A. Sales – Operating expenses

B. Sales – Cost of goods sold

C. Sales – Net income

D. Sales – Taxes

Answer: 

 

7. Which assumption states business will continue operating?

A. Consistency

B. Prudence

C. Going concern

D. Matching

Answer: 

 

8. Which financial statement shows financial position at a point in time?

A. Income Statement

B. Cash Flow Statement

C. Balance Sheet

D. Statement of Changes in Equity

Answer: 

 

9. Inventory is valued at:

A. Market value only

B. Cost or NRV whichever is lower

C. Selling price

D. Replacement cost

Answer: 

 

10. Which is an example of accrued income?

A. Rent received in advance

B. Salary outstanding

C. Interest earned but not received

D. Prepaid expense

Answer:

 

11. Which is NOT part of equity?

A. Retained earnings

B. Share capital

C. Treasury stock (deduction)

D. Accounts payable

Answer: 

 

12. Trial balance ensures:

A. No fraud exists

B. All accounts are correct

C. Debit equals credit

D. Accurate financial reporting

Answer: 

 

13. The matching principle relates to:

A. Asset valuation

B. Revenue timing

C. Expense recognition

D. Cash management

Answer: 

 

14. Contingent liability is recognized when:

A. Possible only

B. Remote

C. Probable and measurable

D. Never

Answer: 

 

15. Which of the following affects working capital?

A. Purchase of machinery for cash

B. Payment to creditors

C. Issue of shares for cash

D. Conversion of debt to equity

Answer: 

 

📗 BASIC COST ACCOUNTING (16–30)

16. Prime cost includes:

A. Direct material + Direct labor

B. Direct labor + Overhead

C. Material + Overhead

D. Fixed cost only

Answer: 

 

17. Contribution margin equals:

A. Sales – Fixed cost

B. Sales – Variable cost

C. Sales – Total cost

D. Sales – Operating income

Answer: 

 

18. Break-even point occurs when:

A. Profit is maximum

B. Contribution = Fixed cost

C. Sales = Variable cost

D. Net income = Sales

Answer: 

 

19. Fixed cost per unit:

A. Remains constant

B. Decreases with increase in output

C. Increases with volume

D. Equals variable cost

Answer: 

 

20. Variable cost per unit:

A. Changes with volume

B. Remains constant

C. Decreases at higher production

D. Is discretionary

Answer: 

 

21. Which is NOT a product cost?

A. Direct labor

B. Factory rent

C. Administrative salary

D. Direct material

Answer: 

 

22. Absorption costing includes:

A. Variable manufacturing cost only

B. Fixed manufacturing cost only

C. Both variable and fixed manufacturing cost

D. Selling cost

Answer: 

 

23. Margin of safety measures:

A. Risk of loss

B. Profit margin

C. Excess of actual sales over BE sales

D. Fixed cost coverage

Answer: 

 

24. Opportunity cost is:

A. Historical cost

B. Sunk cost

C. Benefit foregone

D. Explicit expense

Answer: 

 

25. Relevant cost includes:

A. Sunk cost

B. Future avoidable cost

C. Allocated overhead

D. Book value

Answer: 

 

26. Standard costing is used for:

A. Historical reporting

B. Cost control

C. Tax planning

D. Cash budgeting

Answer: 

 

27. Under marginal costing, fixed cost is:

A. Product cost

B. Period cost

C. Variable cost

D. Inventoriable cost

Answer: 

 

28. Cost driver is:

A. Sales manager

B. Activity causing cost

C. Fixed expense

D. Accounting policy

Answer: 

 

29. High operating leverage indicates:

A. Low fixed cost

B. High variable cost

C. High fixed cost proportion

D. No risk

Answer: 

 

30. Sunk cost is:

A. Relevant

B. Future cost

C. Irrecoverable past cost

D. Avoidable

Answer: 

 

📙 BASIC BUSINESS ACUMEN (31–40)

31. Primary objective of business is:

A. Revenue maximization

B. Profit maximization (long-term value creation)

C. Sales growth only

D. Market share only

Answer: 

 

32. Working capital management focuses on:

A. Long-term assets

B. Short-term assets & liabilities

C. Equity financing

D. Fixed assets

Answer: 

 

33. ROI equals:

A. Profit / Sales

B. Profit / Investment

C. Sales / Assets

D. Assets / Profit

Answer: 

 

34. Liquidity risk refers to inability to:

A. Earn profit

B. Pay short-term obligations

C. Expand business

D. Reduce costs

Answer: 

 

35. Competitive advantage arises from:

A. Higher cost

B. Unique value proposition

C. Large workforce

D. Random pricing

Answer: 

 

36. SWOT analysis evaluates:

A. Profitability only

B. Financial ratios

C. Internal & external factors

D. Only strengths

Answer: 

 

37. High debt increases:

A. Liquidity

B. Financial leverage risk

C. Equity

D. Working capital

Answer: 

 

38. Diversification strategy reduces:

A. Risk concentration

B. Market share

C. Sales

D. Assets

Answer: 

 

39. Cash flow is more critical than profit because:

A. Profit is illegal

B. Cash pays obligations

C. Profit equals cash

D. Cash reduces revenue

Answer: 

 

40. Cost leadership strategy focuses on:

A. Premium pricing

B. Lowest production cost

C. Luxury branding

D. Differentiation only

Answer: 

 

📕 BASIC INTERNAL CONTROL (41–50)

41. Internal control is designed to provide:

A. Absolute assurance

B. Reasonable assurance

C. No assurance

D. Legal immunity

Answer: 

 

42. Segregation of duties prevents:

A. Efficiency

B. Fraud and errors

C. Profit

D. Documentation

Answer: 

 

43. Authorization control ensures:

A. Proper approval of transactions

B. Fraud detection only

C. Budget increase

D. Accounting estimates

Answer: 

 

44. Detective control example:

A. Password access

B. Bank reconciliation

C. Segregation of duties

D. Pre-approval

Answer: 

 

45. Preventive control example:

A. Internal audit

B. Reconciliation

C. Access restriction

D. Variance analysis

Answer: 

 

46. Control environment includes:

A. Management integrity

B. Bank accounts

C. Inventory records

D. Cash book

Answer: 

 

47. Risk assessment involves:

A. Ignoring threats

B. Identifying and analyzing risks

C. Increasing cost

D. Avoiding documentation

Answer: 

 

48. Information & communication ensures:

A. Gossip

B. Accurate reporting flow

C. Marketing

D. Sales increase

Answer: 

 

49. Monitoring includes:

A. One-time review only

B. Continuous evaluation of controls

C. Sales audit

D. Advertising

Answer: 

 

50. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to reduce payroll fraud?

A. Same person prepares & approves payroll

B. HR maintains employee records and Finance processes payment separately

C. No approval needed

D. Manual cash payment only

Answer: 

 

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Here are One-Word / One-Term Answer Questions covering:

• Basic Accounting

• Economics

• Business Acumen

• Cost Accounting

• Accounting Information Systems (AIS)

• Internal Control

• Statistics

• Strategic Management

• Technology & Data Analytics

• Performance Measurement

 

📘 BASIC ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS

1. The accounting equation is based on which concept?

Answer: 

2. Recording expenses in the same period as related revenue follows which principle?

Answer

3. The assumption that business will continue indefinitely is called?

Answer: 

4. Revenue is recorded when earned under which basis?

Answer: 

5. Assets minus liabilities equals?

Answer: 

6. Allocation of cost of tangible asset over useful life is called?

Answer:

7. An obligation arising from past events is called?

Answer:

8. Recording transactions at original cost follows which concept?

Answer: 

 

📗 ECONOMICS

9. Demand decreases when price increases due to which law?

Answer: 

10. Cost of next best alternative is called?

Answer: 

11. Total market value of goods and services is?

Answer

12. Persistent increase in price level is?

Answer: 

13. Market structure with single seller is?

Answer:

14. Situation where quantity demanded equals supplied is?

Answer: 

15. Additional satisfaction from one more unit is?

Answer: 

 

📙 BUSINESS ACUMEN

16. Profit divided by investment is?

Answer

17. Short-term financial strength is measured by?

Answer: 

18. Excess of current assets over current liabilities is?

Answer: 

19. Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats is?

Answer:

20. Risk of inability to meet short-term obligations is?

Answer:

 

📕 COST ACCOUNTING

21. Direct material plus direct labor equals?

Answer:

22. Sales minus variable cost equals?

Answer: 

23. Level of sales where profit is zero is?

Answer:

24. Cost that does not change with volume is?

Answer:

25. Irrecoverable past cost is?

Answer: 

26. Cost that changes per unit but constant in total is?

Answer: 

27. Future cost relevant for decision-making is?

Answer: 

28. Cost system assigning overhead based on activities is?

Answer: 

 

💻 ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEMS (AIS)

29. Collection of interrelated components to process financial data is?

Answer:

30. Input → Processing → Output represents?

Answer: 

31. Preventing unauthorized system access is called?

Answer:

32. Software managing database is?

Answer:

33. Document authorizing transaction processing is?

Answer: 

 

🔐 INTERNAL CONTROL

34. Separation of authorization, custody, and recording is?

Answer: 

35. Control designed to stop errors before occurrence is?

Answer: 

36. Control identifying errors after occurrence is?

Answer: 

37. Framework commonly used for internal control is?

Answer:

38. Continuous evaluation of controls is?

Answer:

 

📊 STATISTICS

39. Average value is called?

Answer:

40. Middle value of ordered data is?

Answer: 

41. Measure of data dispersion is?

Answer: 

42. Relationship between two variables is measured by?

Answer: 

43. Bell-shaped distribution is called?

Answer:

 

📈 STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT

44. Long-term direction of organization is?

Answer: 

45. Strategy focused on lowest cost is?

Answer: 

46. Unique product strategy is?

Answer: 

47. Analysis of industry competition is?

Answer: 

48. Tool comparing internal strengths and external environment is?

Answer: 

 

🤖 TECHNOLOGY & DATA ANALYTICS

49. Large complex datasets are referred to as?

Answer: 

50. Process of extracting patterns from data is?

Answer: 

51. Graphical representation of data is?

Answer: 

52. Algorithm learning from data without explicit programming is?

Answer: 

53. Central repository of integrated data is?

Answer: 

 

📊 PERFORMANCE MEASUREMENT

54. Measure of profitability after cost of capital is?

Answer: 

55. Non-financial performance framework balancing perspectives is?

Answer: 

56. Profit before interest and tax is?

Answer:

57. Ratio measuring efficiency of asset use is?

Answer: 

58. Measure of residual profit is?

Answer: 

 

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