Thursday, September 4, 2025

Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) Certification

The Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) exam is a globally recognized certification for IT auditors and professionals.

The CISA certification is ideal for IT auditors, risk managers, and professionals seeking to demonstrate their expertise in IT auditing and risk management.

The CISA exam for 2025 can be taken any time within a 365-day eligibility period after registration. It is computer-based, consisting of 150 multiple-choice questions covering five domains, and lasts four hours. The exam is scored on a 200-800 scale, with a minimum passing score of 450. Results are typically available within 10 business days after the exam.


Here are detailed insights covering the exam structure, topics and weights, grading system, scheduling, results, and passing criteria:


## Exam Structure and Duration

- The CISA exam has 150 multiple-choice questions.

- The time allotted is 4 hours.

- Questions are scenario-based, designed to test practical knowledge and application.

- The exam can be taken online remotely or at authorized in-person testing centers.

- Candidates can schedule the exam at any time within 365 days of registering, without fixed testing windows.


## Exam Domains and Topic Weightage

The exam content is divided into 5 domains with the following weight distribution:

- Information Systems Auditing Process: 21%

- Governance and Management of IT: 17%

- Information Systems Acquisition, Development, and Implementation: 12%

- Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience: 23%

- Protection of Information Assets: 27%


Each domain covers multiple subtopics such as:

- Auditing planning, risk-based audit strategies, evidence gathering (Domain 1)

- IT governance frameworks, strategic alignment, resource management (Domain 2)

- IT project governance, SDLC, business case development (Domain 3)

- Business continuity, operations management, resilience (Domain 4)

- Cybersecurity principles, asset protection, controls (Domain 5)


## Grading System and Passing Criteria

- Scores are scaled on a range of 200 to 800 points.

- A passing score requires at least 450 points.

- The scaled score reflects consistency in practical knowledge rather than a simple percentage correct.

- There is no penalty for guessing; only correctly answered questions count.

- Candidates may retake the exam up to four times within one year with a 30-day wait between attempts.


## Exam Scheduling and Results

- Candidates register and then can schedule their exam at any available date/time/location within 365 days.

- Rescheduling is permitted if done more than 48 hours before the scheduled exam date.

- Results are delivered and available online within approximately 10 business days after the exam.

- Candidates receive an official score email confirming pass or fail status.


This summary should assist in understanding the full scope of the CISA exam process, key topics, scoring, and scheduling flexibility for 2025.


If desired, further details on specific subtopics within each domain or study resources can be provided.Feel free 🆓 to Text on 9773464206. www.gmsisuccess.in


Here’s a tailored guide to the CISA certification specifically for Indian students:


1. Exam Schedule & Registration

  • When to Register? Registration is open year-round through ISACA. Once registered and fee paid, you have a 12-month window to schedule and take the exam—either at an authorized PSI center or via remote proctoring .

  • When Are Exams Held? While there are no fixed “windows” anymore, you can take the exam any time within your eligibility period. Previously, some Indian chapter notices referred to specific dates like second Saturdays of June, September, and December, but the current model is fully flexible .

  • How to Schedule? You can book the exam as soon as 48 hours after registering. Availability shows up to 90 days in advance, so it’s best to check frequently if preferred slots are not visible immediately .


2. Cost Breakdown in India (Approximate INR)

Cost Component ISACA Member Non-Member
Exam Fee ₹47,000 ₹62,000
ISACA Membership (yearly) ₹8,000–₹11,500 N/A
Certification Application Fee ₹4,000 (~$50) ₹4,000 (~$50)
Annual Maintenance Fee ₹3,750 ₹7,050
Study Materials (e.g., Review Manual) ₹4,000–₹10,000 ₹4,000–₹15,000
Training/Prep Courses ₹10,000–₹70,000 ₹10,000–₹70,000
  • Exam Fees: Members pay around ₹47,000; non-members around ₹62,000 .

  • ISACA Membership: Annual cost ranges between ₹8,000 to ₹11,500 (sometimes up to ₹14,500 if including local chapter) .

  • Application Fee: Around ₹4,000 to process certification after passing .

  • Maintenance (CPE): Post-certification, members pay ₹3,750 annually; non-members, ₹7,050 .

  • Study Materials: Official review manuals cost ₹4,000–₹10,000; additional resources may bring total prep costs to ₹15,000 or more .


3. Experience & Certification Path in India

  • Eligibility to Take the Exam: No prior experience is required to sit for the exam .

  • Certification Requirements: To earn the CISA, you must demonstrate 5 years of relevant IS audit/control/security experience, acquired within the last 10 years or within 5 years post-exam .

  • Waivers/Substitutions (Indian rules align with ISACA global):

    • 1-year IS or non-IS auditing experience can substitute for 1 year of required experience.
    • University degree credits (60–120 semester hours) can substitute for 1–2 years.
    • A Bachelor’s or Master’s in IS/IT or being a full-time lecturer may substitute up to one year each .
  • Associate Status: If you pass the exam but lack full experience, you'll receive an “Associate of CISA” designation. You have up to 5 years to fulfill the experience requirement and apply for full certification .

  • Fees for Associate: There is no annual maintenance or CPE requirement until full certification is granted .


4. Training with Gmsisuccess Goregaon West Mumbai Tel 9773464206

  • Gmsisuccess offers live mock sessions (~₹45,000 + GST) with practice tests on specified dates .


5. Salary Outlook for CISA in India

  • Entry-level: ₹4.5 lakh to ₹7 lakh per year
  • Mid-level (1–4 years): ₹7 lakh to ₹15 lakh
  • Experienced: ₹15 lakh to ₹25 lakh; top salaries around ₹20 lakh in Bengaluru, ₹18 lakh in Mumbai/Delhi .

Community Insights (Reddit)

  • Membership Worth It:

    “It is cheaper to buy a membership … exam costs $575 if you're a member vs $760 if you are not.”
    “After you pass … you have to pay a $45 annual fee to keep your CISA license active.”

  • No Extra Taxes in India:

    “When I paid $575 for my exam … no tax was added.”

  • Associate Status Doesn’t Require Maintenance Fees:

    “You do NOT have to do CPE courses/credits until you receive the certification.”


Quick Summary for Indian Students

  • Exam: Flexible scheduling within 12 months post-registration.
  • Costs: ₹47K (member), ₹62K (non-member) + optional prep materials and training.
  • Membership: Recommend taking it—it often pays for itself through discounts.
  • Experience: Exam-only allowed; full cert requires 5 years (waivers apply).
  • Salience: Strong career prospects; salaries up to ₹25L depending on experience and location.

The contact details for the ISACA Mumbai Chapter are:

These details can be used to inquire about CISA exams, membership, training, events, and other ISACA Mumbai Chapter activities.




👍  here’s a set of sample MCQ questions with answers and explanations aligned to the CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) exam pattern. These are practice-style questions, not actual exam questions.


Sample CISA MCQs

Q1.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of an information systems audit?
A. To ensure adherence to IT best practices
B. To evaluate whether IT systems safeguard assets and maintain data integrity
C. To verify compliance with all ISO standards
D. To confirm efficiency of all IT operations

Answer: B
✔ The main goal of an IS audit is to confirm that systems safeguard assets, maintain data integrity, and support organizational goals.


Q2.

Which of the following controls is most effective in preventing unauthorized changes to application source code?
A. Role-based access controls (RBAC)
B. Encryption of source code files
C. Restricted access to program libraries
D. Audit logging of developer activity

Answer: C
✔ Restricting access to program libraries prevents unauthorized changes before they occur (preventive control). Audit logs (D) are detective, not preventive.


Q3.

The MOST important reason to segregate duties between the systems development team and the operations team is to:
A. Improve system performance
B. Avoid resource conflicts
C. Prevent fraud and unauthorized changes
D. Reduce cost of operations

Answer: C
✔ Segregation of duties reduces the risk of fraud or unauthorized system modifications.


Q4.

During an IS audit, the auditor notices that backup tapes are stored at the same site as the data center. The auditor should recommend:
A. Encrypting all backup tapes
B. Moving backups to an offsite location
C. Increasing the frequency of backups
D. Storing backups in a locked cabinet

Answer: B
✔ Backups must be stored offsite to ensure disaster recovery capability. Encryption is good but doesn’t address physical disaster risk.


Q5.

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk when using end-user developed applications (e.g., Excel-based systems)?
A. Lack of centralized version control
B. Higher maintenance costs
C. Increased processing time
D. Poor user interface design

Answer: A
✔ Without centralized version control, errors, unauthorized changes, and inconsistent results are common, creating high risk.


Q6.

Which type of control is a firewall considered?
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventive
D. Compensating

Answer: C
✔ Firewalls prevent unauthorized network access → preventive control.


Q7.

The MOST important role of an IS auditor during a system implementation is to:
A. Approve the system design before go-live
B. Ensure that controls are built into the system during development
C. Conduct parallel testing with the old system
D. Train users in system functionality

Answer: B
✔ The auditor ensures that adequate controls are embedded early in development to prevent costly redesign later.


Q8.

Which of the following methods is BEST for an IS auditor to use when verifying that users have appropriate system access rights?
A. Reviewing security logs
B. Performing a role-based access review with management
C. Observing user activities on the system
D. Running penetration testing

Answer: B
✔ A role-based access review with management validates whether access is appropriate for job responsibilities.


Q9.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern with wireless networks?
A. Network speed limitations
B. Unauthorized access due to weak encryption
C. Higher cost of installation
D. Compatibility with wired networks

Answer: B
✔ The major risk is unauthorized access if encryption/authentication is weak.


Q10.

An IS auditor is assessing an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following should be the FIRST step?
A. Verify backup storage location
B. Review recovery time objectives (RTOs)
C. Test the failover to the backup site
D. Review the business impact analysis (BIA)

Answer: D
✔ DRP should be based on the business impact analysis (BIA), which defines critical systems and acceptable downtime.


👉 These 10 cover core CISA domains: governance, risk management, IT operations, security, and audit practices.

More MCQ Questions ⁉️ 


CISA exam MCQ Questions with answers


Here are some sample CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) exam multiple choice questions (MCQs) with answers to aid in exam preparation:


1. An auditor finds terminated employees still have active user accounts. What should the auditor do next?  

   - A. Report to management immediately  

   - B. Ignore the issue  

   - C. Verify if accounts were used after termination  

   - D. Recommend a complete overhaul of access control  

   **Answer:** C. Verify if accounts have been used after termination  

   _(This helps to assess any possible misuse)_ 


2. Which framework is commonly used for IT governance?  

   - A. ISO 9001  

   - B. COBIT  

   - C. Six Sigma  

   - D. ITIL  

   **Answer:** B. COBIT  

   _(COBIT provides guidelines on IT governance and management)_ 


3. What is the type of backup that copies only data changed since the last full backup?  

   - A. Full backup  

   - B. Incremental backup  

   - C. Differential backup  

   - D. Snapshot backup  

   **Answer:** B. Incremental backup  

   _(Saves time and storage by copying only changed data)_ 


4. Which of the following represents a technical control?  

   - A. Security awareness training  

   - B. Background checks  

   - C. Access control lists  

   - D. Physical access controls  

   **Answer:** C. Access control lists  

   _(Use technology to restrict access)_ 


5. What is the objective of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?  

   - A. Identify IT threats  

   - B. Assess impact of disruptions on business  

   - C. Develop security policies  

   - D. Perform system maintenance  

   **Answer:** B. Assess impact of disruptions on business operations  

   _(Helps prioritize recovery efforts)_ 


6. Which of the following is a common method to verify data integrity?  

   - A. Encryption  

   - B. Hashing  

   - C. Compression  

   - D. Tokenization  

   **Answer:** B. Hashing  

   _(Produces a unique hash to validate data)_ 


7. An organization wants to implement MFA for remote employees. Which combination provides MFA?  

   - A. Username and password  

   - B. Password and security token  

   - C. Password and email address  

   - D. Username and email address  

   **Answer:** B. Password and security token  

   _(Two different factor types: something you know and have)_ [1]


8. Which of the following is a common social engineering attack technique?  

   - A. Encryption  

   - B. Firewall evasion  

   - C. Password cracking  

   - D. Phishing  

   **Answer:** D. Phishing  

   _(Using deceptive messages to steal info)_


These questions cover key domains like IT governance, risk management, audit process, protection of information assets, and social engineering. They are representative of typical topics found on the CISA exam. Detailed explanations accompany the answers for better understanding.


Feel free 🆓 to discuss with me if you have any questions ‼️ Call or Text on 9773464206.

www.gmsisuccess.in



Wednesday, September 3, 2025

CUET 2026 Complete Details

Common University Entrance Test (CUET)—a central-government-mandated entrance exam in India—designed to streamline admissions across multiple universities:


What is CUET?

  • Full Form: Common University Entrance Test (previously known as CUCET) .
  • Conducted By: The National Testing Agency (NTA)—an independent, autonomous body under the Ministry of Education—responsible for conducting transparent and standardized assessments .
  • Purpose: A unified, single-window entrance exam for admission to a range of undergraduate (UG) and postgraduate (PG) programs across Central Universities and participating state, deemed, and private institutions .

CUET UG (Undergraduate) – Highlights for 2026

  • Application Timeline:

    • Submission window: 1 March to 22 March 2026, with fee payment till 23 March .
    • Correction window: 24–26 March 2026 .
  • Exam Dates: Conducted in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode between 13 May and 3 June 2026 .

  • Languages Offered: Available in 13 Indian languages including English, Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Marathi, Telugu, and others .

  • Subjects:

    • Candidates can select up to five subjects, including language(s) and a General Aptitude Test .
    • Fee: Varies by category—
      • General: ₹1,000 for up to 3 subjects; ₹400 for each additional
      • OBC-NCL / EWS: ₹900; ₹375 for each extra
      • SC/ST/PwBD/Third Gender: ₹800; ₹350 for each extra .
  • Candidates: Over 13.5 lakh candidates registered for CUET UG 2026 .

  • Question Format:

    • Entirely objective (MCQs).
    • Sections:
      • Language Test (13 languages)
      • Domain-specific subjects based on Class 12 NCERT syllabus
      • General Test: Includes logical reasoning, basic math, current affairs, general knowledge .
  • Exam Difficulty & Student Feedback:

    • Overall: Moderate to difficult
    • Chemistry: Conceptual & numerical; challenging
    • Biology: Easier, though around 30% faced time management issues
    • General Aptitude & English: Mostly manageable, with some length-related challenges .
    • Experts emphasize NCERT as the foundation, with strategic study, correct subject choices, and time management being crucial .
  • Controversy – Accountancy Re-Test:

    • NTA conducted a re-examination for the Accountancy paper due to inclusion of syllabus content outside the prescribed material (specifically Unit V). Students could choose to retake, but the policy—where the original score is voided—sparked criticism for fairness and stress implications .
  • Exam Centers Expansion:

    • In Meghalaya, three new CUET-UG centers in Shillong were added to ease candidate travel burdens—resulting in most taking the test within the state rather than traveling to Guwahati .
  • Ministry Oversight:

    • The Education Ministry has increased scrutiny over NTA, citing issues like delays, logistical problems, and exam misconduct—for example, in CUET and NEET-UG—calling for reforms in testing administration .
  • Opportunities for Low Scorers:

    • Even students with relatively lower CUET scores can obtain admission to quality government universities, provided they select suitable institutions and courses. A recent listing highlights 10 such universities that offer promising options on lower scores .

CUET PG (Postgraduate) – Key Details for 2026

  • Application Period:

    • Submission: 2 January to 1 February 2026
    • Fee payment: Till 2 February
    • Correction window: 3–5 February 2026 .
  • Exam Dates: Held via CBT between 13 March and 31 March 2026 .

  • Question Papers: Available in English and Hindi (bilingual), except for some subjects with specific language rules .

  • Scope:

    • Covers 157 subjects, offered across 312 cities, including 27 cities abroad .
    • Exam is a single-window opportunity for admissions to UG/PG programs in Central and other participating universities .

Summary Table at a Glance

Exam Type Conducting Body Application Dates Exam Dates Format Focus Areas
CUET UG NTA 1–22 Mar 2026 13 May – 3 Jun 2026 CBT (MCQ) Language, Domain Subjects (NCERT Class 12), General Aptitude
CUET PG NTA 2 Jan – 1 Feb 2026 13 – 31 Mar 2026 CBT (Bilingual) Multiple PG subjects, wide city coverage, single platform

 👍  contents of the CUET (Common University Entrance Test).


📘 CUET Exam Contents

The CUET exam is divided into three main sections, covering languages, subject knowledge, and general ability.


Section 1: Language Test

  • Two parts:

    • Section IA: 13 Languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu).
    • Section IB: 20 Additional Languages (e.g., French, German, Arabic, Sanskrit, etc.).
  • Question Types:

    • Reading Comprehension (factual, literary, narrative, vocabulary-based).
    • Rearranging sentences.
    • Grammar & Usage.

Section 2: Domain-Specific Subjects

  • Based on Class 12 NCERT syllabus.
  • Candidates can choose subjects depending on the requirements of the university/program they apply for.

Some Key Subjects:

  • Science Stream: Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics.
  • Commerce Stream: Accountancy, Business Studies, Economics.
  • Humanities/Arts: History, Political Science, Geography, Sociology, Psychology, Philosophy.
  • Vocational/Applied Subjects: Agriculture, Computer Science, Physical Education, etc.

Section 3: General Test

  • Tests overall aptitude and awareness.
  • Useful for admissions to interdisciplinary or general courses.

Contents:

  • General Knowledge & Current Affairs
  • Logical & Analytical Reasoning
  • Quantitative Aptitude (up to Class 10 level)
    • Simplification, Ratio & Proportion, Speed-Distance-Time, Averages, Algebra basics, Geometry, Mensuration.
  • Numerical Ability
  • Mental Ability

Exam Format at a Glance

Section Content No. of Questions (Attempt Required) Time
Section IA Languages (13 options) 40/50 45 mins per language
Section IB Additional Languages (20 options) 40/50 45 mins
Section II Domain-Specific Subjects (27 options) 40/50 45 mins per subject
Section III General Test 50/60 60 mins

In summary:

  • Languages → English + Indian/foreign languages.
  • Domain Subjects → Based on NCERT Class 12 subjects.
  • General Test → Aptitude, GK, reasoning, math.


✅  Detailed exam structure of CUET (UG) for you, including questions, time, type, scoring, and passing rules.


📊 CUET UG Exam Pattern (2026 onwards)

1. Types of Questions

  • All questions are objective MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions).
  • Each question has 4 options (only 1 correct).
  • Based on NCERT Class 12 syllabus for domain subjects.

2. Number of Questions & Time Allowed

Section Content Total Qs To Attempt Time
Section IA Languages (13 options) 50 40 45 mins per language
Section IB Additional Languages (20 options) 50 40 45 mins
Section II Domain Subjects (27 options) 50 40 45 mins per subject
Section III General Test (GK, Reasoning, Math, Current Affairs) 60 50 60 mins

👉 Students can choose a combination of subjects (max. 6 papers including languages).


3. Scoring System

  • Correct Answer: +5 marks
  • Wrong Answer: -1 mark (negative marking applies)
  • Unanswered: 0 marks

🔹 Total marks vary depending on the number of subjects chosen (since each subject has 200 marks = 40 × 5).


4. Score Normalization

  • Since CUET is conducted in multiple shifts, raw marks are converted into a normalized score (percentile).
  • Universities use percentile ranks to prepare merit lists.

5. Grades / Results

  • NTA doesn’t award traditional "grades" like A, B, C.
  • Instead, results show:
    • Percentile Score (0–100) for each subject.
    • All India Rank (AIR) for the candidate.
  • Universities then decide cut-offs for admission.

6. Passing Requirements

  • No fixed “pass marks” in CUET (NTA just provides raw scores & percentile).
  • Admission depends on:
    1. University cut-off/merit list for the chosen course.
    2. Candidate’s CUET score + eligibility criteria (e.g., minimum 50% in Class 12 for many universities).

⚠️ Example:

  • Delhi University may demand 650+ marks (or 95+ percentile) for B.Com (Hons).
  • A smaller Central University may admit with 400 marks (70 percentile) in the same stream.

In short:

  • MCQs, 50 Qs per paper, attempt 40.
  • +5 for correct, -1 for wrong.
  • No “pass/fail” system → admission depends on percentile rank and university cut-off.


If you're planning for CUET, let me know whether you'd like help with eligibility criteria, subject-wise exam patterns, preparation strategies, or upcoming CUET 2026 timelines—and I’d be happy to assist!

Call or Text on 9773464206

Best wishes 🍀 from Prof Mahaley Head Gmsisuccess Goregaon West Mumbai.


Tuesday, September 2, 2025

Gmsisuccess.. Exam Stretegy for US CMA Part 1 students.

 Gmsisuccess.. Exam Stretegy for US CMA Part 1 students.


Steps for Interpreting Exam Questions

  1. Read the last line first – This helps identify exactly what the question is asking.
  2. Analyze the requirement – Determine what is needed and the relevant section of the syllabus it belongs to.
  3. Focus on keywords – Highlight terms that point to the correct concept, calculation, or framework.
  4. Prioritize key information – Extract the most important details before solving.

Priority Topics to Cover

  1. Budgeting – Cash budget, flexible budget, etc.
  2. Variance Analysis – Material, labor, variable and fixed overhead variances, sales variance, two-way and three-way analysis.
  3. Performance Measurement – ROI, RI, transfer pricing methods.
  4. Internal Control Systems – Importance, inherent limitations, COSO vs. COBIT, SOX, FCPA.
  5. Joint and By-product Costing
  6. Overhead Allocation Methods
  7. Job Order Costing and Process Costing
  8. Accounting Standards – Impairment loss, deferred tax, leases, warranty liabilities.
  9. Bond Valuation
  10. Receivables Accounting
  11. Investments in Associates
  12. Investments in Subsidiaries
  13. Revenue Recognition
  14. Revenue Cycle
  15. Cost and Operations Management – JIT, MRP & MRP II, Kaizen, capacity management, cost of quality.
  16. Normal vs. Abnormal Loss
  17. System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
  18. Strategic Analysis Models – BCG Matrix, Porter’s Framework, SWOT, PESTEL.
  19. Data Analytics and Visualization – Charts, dashboards, Excel applications.
  20. Quantitative Techniques – Expected value, learning curve, EVPI, exponential smoothing, multiple regression.

Exam Strategy

  • You don’t need mastery of every topic—aim for 80% coverage with a 20% margin of uncertainty, which is enough to score well.
  • Avoid over-reliance on popular publications (e.g., Gleim, Becker, Hock). No direct exam questions are taken from these sources.
  • Instead, complete the IMA Student Support Package—its practice questions closely reflect the actual exam in both style and wording.

MCQ Interpretation & Answering Techniques

  • The biggest challenge is not knowledge, but interpreting and understanding multiple-choice questions (MCQs).
  • Always attempt questions immediately—do not leave them flagged for later.
  • Avoid blind guessing; instead, use educated guessing techniques for lengthy or difficult questions.
  • Maximize the number of attempted questions to improve the probability of scoring 400+/500.
Question ⁉️ sure ask in exam MCQ. Essay section...
1.Illustration:
Major topic subtopic are: Computation of...ROI & RI ,material & labour variance,spending & efficiency variance, Cash budget, flexible budget, impairement loss,purchased goodwill,overapplied under applied of overheads,direct or step down method of overhead Allocation, cashflow statement, receivable accounting,Defferred Tax exps,Job order cost,EVPI,Learning curve,Expected value,Joint cost allocation NRV Method,Equity dividend,Bond valuation, Investment in Associates,Unrealised profit in Holding stock in consolidated income statement,prior periid expenses-over or under provision of income tax, Depreciation methods,Revenue Recognition, inventory valuation as per Absorption. variable.super variable costing, Multiple Regression equation,etc 
This covers 25+ practical question ⁉️ scale 200+

2. Theoritical Question ⁉️ 
Major topic subtopic are: Difference between Engineering costs &Discretionary costs, Treatment of purchased Goodwill & bargain purchase, Cash & Cash equivalent,Off the cashflow, transaction of CFO CFI CFF, Impairement loss steps,Reasons for unfavourable material labour overhead efficiency variance,Budgetory slacks,types of Budget, BCG matrix, porter, benchmark, Balanced score card, SWOT analysis Pestel analysis, limitations of balance sheet, Journal entry for Integrated COST flow,JE for overapplied underapplied overhead adjustment,overhead Allocation methods,Transfer pricing methods, internal control limitations, types of chart with its application,diff between Job order & process costing Activity base costing,SOX,FCPA,LIQUIDITY PROFTABILITY SOLVENCY,OPERATING & FINANCIAL LEVERAGE,OVER & UNDER CAPITALIZATION, Financial and non financial factors in Balancescored card,Goal congruence & Transfer pricing decision,Risk owner in Responsibilty centre,SDLC,DATA ANALYTICS & DATA VISUALIZATION, ABNORMAL LOSS TREATMENT,REVENUE RECOGNITION, REVENUE CYCLE,PAYROLL, MATERIAL PROCUREMENT,JIT, KAIZAN,COST OF QUALITY,Etc 

More important questions ‼️ in next article...

Best wishes 🍀 
Prof Mahaley Head Gmsisuccess Mumbai 


Monday, September 1, 2025

ROI considered base is investment as operating assets but for residual income consider investment as net assets

 ROI considered base is investment as operating assets but for residual income consider investment as net assets


ROI typically uses **operating assets** as the investment base, whereas residual income often considers the base as **net assets or equity capital**


## ROI Base: Operating Assets


- The denominator in ROI is generally the value of assets used in daily operations, such as property, plant, and equipment that are actively employed in creating income

- Example: ROI = Operating Income / Average Operating Assets. Assets not in day-to-day use, like land held for investment, are excluded


## RI Base: Net Assets or Equity Capital


- Residual income measures the excess operating income after accounting for the required return on the capital invested, often calculated based on net assets (total assets minus liabilities) or specifically on equity capital[4][3][5].

- Example: RI = Net Income – (Equity Capital × Cost of Equity) or RI = Net Operating Profit After Taxes – (Invested Capital × Cost of Capital)


### Distinction


- **ROI** focuses on total operating assets deployed[1].

- **RI** is generally measured on net assets or equity invested, emphasizing income above the cost of capital tied to those net assets


This distinction ensures that ROI is a measure of operational efficiency, while RI reflects value creation for shareholders after all costs—including opportunity costs—have been accounted for.


Let's break down the ROI and RI formulas with illustrations.


*Return on Investment (ROI)*


ROI considers operating assets, which include property, plant, and equipment (PP&E), inventory, and accounts receivable. The formula is:


ROI = Net Income / Average Operating Assets


*Illustration:*


Suppose a company has:

- Net income: $100,000

- Average operating assets: $500,000 (including PP&E, inventory, and accounts receivable)


ROI = $100,000 / $500,000 = 0.20 or 20%


This means the company generates a 20% return on its operating assets.


*Residual Income (RI)*


RI considers net assets, which include fixed assets and net working capital (NWC). NWC is calculated as operating current assets minus operating current liabilities. The formula is:


RI = Net Income - (Cost of Capital x Net Assets)


*Illustration:*


Suppose a company has:

- Net income: $250,000

- Fixed assets: $600,000 (property, plant, and equipment)

- Net working capital: $200,000 (accounts receivable + inventory - accounts payable)

- Cost of capital: 15%


Net Assets = Fixed Assets + Net Working Capital = $600,000 + $200,000 = $800,000


RI = $250,000 - (15% x $800,000) = $250,000 - $120,000 = $130,000


This means the company has a residual income of $130,000 after covering the cost of capital.


*Key differences:*


- ROI focuses on operating assets, while RI considers net assets (fixed assets + net working capital).

- ROI measures return as a percentage, while RI measures the absolute residual income after covering the cost of capital.

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