Showing posts with label Cost accounting. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Cost accounting. Show all posts

Saturday, May 9, 2026

Basic concepts mocktest on financial accounting, cost accounting information system, economics etc 100 MCQ

 

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100 MCQs – US CMA Part 1 Foundation Topics Topics Covers: Basic Accounting, Economics, Cost Accounting, Business Acumen, Governance, Finance Terms, AIS, Revenue/Purchase/Payroll Cycles, Org Structure, Tech & Data Analytics


*Section 1: Basic Accounting Concepts – 15 Qs*


1. *GAAP stands for:*  

   A. Generally Accepted Audit Principles  

   B. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles  

   C. General Accounting Application Process  

   D. Government Accounting Auditing Procedures  

   *Answer:


2. *The accounting equation is:*  

   A. Assets = Liabilities + Equity  

   B. Assets = Liabilities – Equity  

   C. Assets + Liabilities = Equity  

   D. Assets + Equity = Liabilities  

   *Answer:


3. *Revenue is recognized when:*  

   A. Cash is received  

   B. Performance obligation is satisfied per ASC 606  

   C. Invoice is sent  

   D. Contract is signed  

   *Answer


4. *Accrual basis records expenses when:*  

   A. Paid  

   B. Incurred, regardless of payment  

   C. Budgeted  

   D. Approved  

   *Answer:


5. *Which is a contra-asset account?*  

   A. Accounts Payable  

   B. Accumulated Depreciation  

   C. Sales Revenue  

   D. Prepaid Rent  

   *Answer:


6. *Depreciation is an example of:*  

   A. Matching principle  

   B. Revenue recognition  

   C. Conservatism  

   D. Full disclosure  

   *Answer: 


7. *Current assets do NOT include:*  

   A. Inventory  

   B. Accounts Receivable  

   C. Land  

   D. Prepaid Insurance  

   *Answer: 


8. *Debit to expense means:*  

   A. Expense increases  

   B. Expense decreases  

   C. Asset increases  

   D. Liability increases  

   *Answer:


9. *Trial balance purpose:*  

   A. Calculate net income  

   B. Prove debits = credits  

   C. Prepare tax return  

   D. Close books  

   *Answer: 


10. *Adjusting entry for accrued salaries:*  

    A. Dr Cash, Cr Salaries Expense  

    B. Dr Salaries Expense, Cr Salaries Payable  

    C. Dr Salaries Payable, Cr Cash  

    D. Dr Retained Earnings, Cr Salaries Expense  

    *Answer


11. *FIFO vs LIFO in rising prices: FIFO gives:*  

    A. Lower net income, lower inventory  

    B. Higher net income, higher inventory  

    C. Lower net income, higher inventory  

    D. Same result  

    *Answer


12. *Book value of asset =*  

    A. Cost – Accumulated Depreciation  

    B. Market value  

    C. Replacement cost  

    D. Salvage value  

    *Answer


13. *Unearned revenue is:*  

    A. Asset  

    B. Liability  

    C. Revenue  

    D. Equity  

    *Answer: 


14. *Which statement shows financial position at a point in time?*  

    A. Income Statement  

    B. Balance Sheet  

    C. Cash Flow Statement  

    D. Statement of Retained Earnings  

    *Answer:


15. *Double-entry accounting means:*  

    A. Two sets of books  

    B. Every transaction affects at least 2 accounts  

    C. Record twice for accuracy  

    D. Debit twice, credit once  

    *Answer:


---


*Section 2: Basic Economics – 10 Qs*


16. *Opportunity cost is:*  

    A. Historical cost  

    B. Value of next best alternative forgone  

    C. Sunk cost  

    D. Fixed cost  

    *Answer: 


17. *Law of demand: Price ↑, Quantity demanded:*  

    A. Increases  

    B. Decreases  

    C. Stays same  

    D. Zero  

    *Answer: 


18. *Price elasticity >1 means demand is:*  

    A. Inelastic  

    B. Elastic  

    C. Unit elastic  

    D. Perfectly inelastic  

    *Answer


19. *GDP measures:*  

    A. Total income of citizens  

    B. Total market value of goods/services produced in country  

    C. Government spending  

    D. Net exports  

    *Answer: 


20. *In recession, Fed typically:*  

    A. Raises interest rates  

    B. Lowers interest rates  

    C. Increases taxes  

    D. Reduces money supply  

    *Answer: 


21. *Monopoly has:*  

    A. Many sellers  

    B. One seller, high barriers to entry  

    C. Price takers  

    D. Homogeneous products  

    *Answer:


22. *CPI measures:*  

    A. Producer prices  

    B. Consumer price inflation  

    C. GDP growth  

    D. Unemployment  

    *Answer:


23. *Fiscal policy is controlled by:*  

    A. Federal Reserve  

    B. Government – taxing/spending  

    C. Banks  

    D. WTO  

    *Answer:


24. *Comparative advantage means:*  

    A. Produce all goods cheaper  

    B. Produce at lower opportunity cost  

    C. Absolute advantage  

    D. No trade  

    *Answer:


25. *Supply curve shifts right due to:*  

    A. Cost increase  

    B. Technology improvement  

    C. Tax increase  

    D. Fewer suppliers  

    *Answer: 


---


*Section 3: Basic Cost Accounting – 15 Qs*


26. *Prime cost =*  

    A. DM + DL + FOH  

    B. DM + DL  

    C. DL + FOH  

    D. Total manufacturing cost  

    *Answer: 


27. *Conversion cost =*  

    A. DM + DL  

    B. DL + FOH  

    C. DM + FOH  

    D. Prime + FOH  

    *Answer:


28. *Fixed cost per unit:*  

    A. Constant  

    B. Decreases as volume increases  

    C. Increases as volume increases  

    D. Zero  

    *Answer:


29. *Variable cost total:*  

    A. Constant  

    B. Changes with volume  

    C. Zero at zero production  

    D. Both B & C  

    *Answer:


30. *Direct cost example:*  

    A. Factory rent  

    B. Wood for table  

    C. Supervisor salary  

    D. Depreciation  

    *Answer: 


31. *Indirect cost is:*  

    A. Traceable to product  

    B. Not traceable, allocated  

    C. Prime cost  

    D. DM  

    *Answer:


32. *Job costing used for:*  

    A. Oil refining  

    B. Custom homes  

    C. Soft drinks  

    D. Chemicals  

    *Answer: 


33. *Process costing used for:*  

    A. Shipbuilding  

    B. Cement  

    C. Consulting  

    D. Advertising  

    *Answer:


34. *Contribution margin =*  

    A. Sales – Fixed costs  

    B. Sales – Variable costs  

    C. Sales – COGS  

    D. Net income  

    *Answer:


35. *Break-even point units =*  

    A. Fixed costs / CM per unit  

    B. Fixed costs / Sales  

    C. Sales / CM ratio  

    D. VC / CM  

    *Answer:


36. *Margin of safety =*  

    A. Actual sales – Break-even sales  

    B. Break-even – Actual  

    C. Fixed costs / CM  

    D. Net income  

    *Answer: 


37. *Overhead allocation base should be:*  

    A. Random  

    B. Cost driver causing OH  

    C. Always DL hours  

    D. Sales  

    *Answer: 


38. *Normal costing uses:*  

    A. Actual DM, Actual DL, Actual OH  

    B. Actual DM, Actual DL, Applied OH  

    C. Standard all  

    D. Estimated all  

    *Answer: 


39. *Sunk cost is:*  

    A. Relevant for decision  

    B. Past cost, irrelevant  

    C. Future cost  

    D. Opportunity cost  

    *Answer: 

40. *Differential cost is:*  

    A. Sunk cost  

    B. Difference between alternatives  

    C. Fixed cost  

    D. Historical cost  

    *Answer: 


---


*Section 4: Basic Business Acumen & Corporate Governance – 10 Qs*


41. *Board of Directors primary duty:*  

    A. Day-to-day operations  

    B. Oversight, strategy, risk, protect shareholders  

    C. Prepare financials  

    D. Sales  

    *Answer: 


42. *Audit Committee must have:*  

    A. CEO as member  

    B. All independent directors, 1 financial expert  

    C. CFO chair  

    D. Internal auditors  

    *Answer: 


43. *Sarbanes-Oxley 404 requires:*  

    A. Tax audit  

    B. Management assessment + auditor attestation of ICFR  

    C. Cost audit  

    D. Inventory audit  

    *Answer: 


44. *Agency problem exists between:*  

    A. Customers & suppliers  

    B. Managers & shareholders  

    C. Employees & vendors  

    D. Auditors & mgmt  

    *Answer: 


45. *Whistleblower program is part of:*  

    A. Control Environment  

    B. Risk Assessment  

    C. Monitoring  

    D. Information  

    *Answer: 


46. *Fiduciary duty means:*  

    A. Act in own interest  

    B. Act in best interest of others  

    C. Maximize short-term profit  

    D. Avoid all risk  

    *Answer:


47. *Stakeholders include:*  

    A. Shareholders only  

    B. Shareholders, employees, customers, suppliers, community  

    C. Board only  

    D. Government only  

    *Answer:


48. *Code of Ethics addresses:*  

    A. Tax rates  

    B. Conflicts of interest, integrity, confidentiality  

    C. Product pricing  

    D. Dividends  

    *Answer: 


49. *Enterprise Risk Management per COSO includes:*  

    A. Financial reporting only  

    B. Strategy, operations, reporting, compliance risks  

    C. IT risks only  

    D. Audit risks  

    *Answer:


50. *Tone at the top refers to:*  

    A. CEO salary  

    B. Ethical culture set by board & senior mgmt  

    C. Office design  

    D. Stock price  

    *Answer:


---


*Section 5: Basic Finance Terms – 10 Qs*


51. *NPV > 0 means:*  

    A. Reject project  

    B. Accept – adds value  

    C. IRR < WACC  

    D. Payback not met  

    *Answer:


52. *WACC is:*  

    A. Cost of debt only  

    B. Weighted average cost of debt & equity  

    C. Return on assets  

    D. Dividend rate  

    *Answer:


53. *Current Ratio =*  

    A. Current Assets / Current Liabilities  

    B. Quick Assets / Current Liabilities  

    C. Total Debt / Equity  

    D. NI / Sales  

    *Answer:


54. *ROE =*  

    A. Net Income / Sales  

    B. Net Income / Total Assets  

    C. Net Income / Equity  

    D. EBIT / Assets  

    *Answer: 


55. *Time value of money: $1 today > $1 future due to:*  

    A. Inflation + opportunity to earn  

    B. Tax  

    C. Accounting rules  

    D. Depreciation  

    *Answer: 


56. *Bond price ↑ when interest rates:*  

    A. Increase  

    B. Decrease  

    C. Stay same  

    D. No relation  

    *Answer:


57. *Diversification reduces:*  

    A. Systematic risk  

    B. Unsystematic risk  

    C. Market risk  

    D. Interest rate risk  

    *Answer: 



58. *Operating leverage high means:*  

    A. High variable costs  

    B. High fixed costs, EBIT sensitive to sales  

    C. Low risk  

    D. Low break-even  

    *Answer:


59. *Dividend payout ratio =*  

    A. Dividends / Net Income  

    B. Net Income / Dividends  

    C. Dividends / Sales  

    D. Retained Earnings / NI  

    *Answe


60. *Treasury stock is:*  

    A. Stock owned by government  

    B. Company’s own stock repurchased  

    C. Preferred stock  

    D. Foreign stock  

    *Answer:


---


*Section 6: AIS & Business Cycles Documents – 15 Qs*


61. *AIS stands for:*  

    A. Accounting Internal System  

    B. Accounting Information System  

    C. Audit Information Standard  

    D. Asset Inventory System  

    *Answer:


62. *Revenue cycle starts with:*  

    A. Cash receipt  

    B. Customer order  

    C. Invoice  

    D. Shipment  

    *Answer:


63. *Key document in revenue cycle:*  

    A. Purchase order  

    B. Sales order  

    C. Receiving report  

    D. Time card  

    *Answer:


64. *Bill of lading is prepared by:*  

    A. Customer  

    B. Carrier – proof of shipment  

    C. Sales dept  

    D. Accounting  

    *Answer:


65. *Remittance advice accompanies:*  

    A. Sales order  

    B. Customer payment  

    C. Purchase requisition  

    D. Invoice  

    *Answer:


66. *Purchase cycle starts with:*  

    A. Invoice from vendor  

    B. Purchase requisition  

    C. Payment  

    D. Receiving report  

    *Answer: 




67. *PO stands for:*  

    A. Payment Order  

    B. Purchase Order  

    C. Production Order  

    D. Payroll Order  

    *Answer:


68. *Three-way match in purchase cycle:*  

    A. PO, Invoice, Check  

    B. PO, Receiving Report, Vendor Invoice  

    C. Requisition, PO, Invoice  

    D. Quote, PO, Payment  

    *Answer: 


69. *Receiving report is prepared by:*  

    A. Purchasing dept  

    B. Receiving dept upon goods receipt  

    C. Vendor  

    D. Accounting  

    *Answer: 


70. *Payroll cycle key document:*  

    A. Sales invoice  

    B. Time card/Time sheet  

    C. Purchase order  

    D. Packing slip  

    *Answer:


71. *W-4 form used for:*  

    A. Employee tax withholding info  

    B. Employer tax payment  

    C. Vendor payment  

    D. Customer credit  

    *Answer: 


72. *Control in revenue cycle:*  

    A. No credit checks  

    B. Segregation: Order entry, credit, shipping, billing, cash  

    C. Same person ships & bills  

    D. No invoices  

    *Answer: 


73. *Purchase cycle fraud red flag:*  

    A. Three-way match done  

    B. Vendor address = employee address  

    C. Approved PO  

    D. Receiving report signed  

    *Answer:


74. *Payroll fraud type:*  

    A. Kiting  

    B. Ghost employee  

    C. Lapping  

    D. Channel stuffing  

    *Answer:


75. *AIS output includes:*  

    A. Financial statements, management reports  

    B. Source documents only  

    C. Journal entries only  

    D. Bank statements  

    *Answer


---


*Section 7: Org Structure & Technology/Data Analytics – 25 Qs*


76. *Functional org structure groups by:*  

    A. Products  

    B. Function: Marketing, Finance, Production  

    C. Geography  

    D. Customers  

    *Answer:


77. *Matrix structure has:*  

    A. Single boss  

    B. Dual reporting – function & project  

    C. No hierarchy  

    D. Outsourced  

    *Answer:


78. *Span of control means:*  

    A. Number of levels  

    B. Number of subordinates per manager  

    C. Company size  

    D. Budget size  

    *Answer: 



79. *Centralized decision making:*  

    A. Fast, local response  

    B. Decisions at top, consistent  

    C. Low control  

    D. Empowerment  

    *Answer


80. *ERP system benefit:*  

    A. Data silos  

    B. Integrated database, real-time info  

    C. Manual entry  

    D. Multiple systems  

    *Answer:


81. *Database vs Spreadsheet: Database better for:*  

    A. Small ad-hoc analysis  

    B. Large volume, multi-user, data integrity  

    C. Charts  

    D. One-time calc  

    *Answer:


82. *Data warehouse is:*  

    A. Transaction processing  

    B. Central repository for analytics & reporting  

    C. Backup system  

    D. Email server  

    *Answer:


83. *Big Data 3 V’s:*  

    A. Value, Verify, Validate  

    B. Volume, Velocity, Variety  

    C. Visual, Verbal, Vital  

    D. Vendor, Version, View  

    *Answer:


84. *Descriptive analytics answers:*  

    A. What will happen?  

    B. What happened?  

    C. Why did it happen?  

    D. What should we do?  

    *Answer:


85. *Predictive analytics answers:*  

    A. What happened?  

    B. What will happen?  

    C. What should we do?  

    D. Why it happened?  

    *Answer: 


86. *Prescriptive analytics answers:*  

    A. What happened?  

    B. What should we do?  

    C. What will happen?  

    D. Why it happened?  

    *Answer:


87. *RPA stands for:*  

    A. Risk Planning Analysis  

    B. Robotic Process Automation  

    C. Revenue Per Asset  

    D. Return on Process  

    *Answer: 


88. *RPA best for:*  

    A. Judgment tasks  

    B. Repetitive, rule-based, high-volume tasks  

    C. Creative work  

    D. Strategy  

    *Answer:


89. *Data visualization tool example:*  

    A. Word  

    B. Tableau, Power BI  

    C. Outlook  

    D. Notepad  

    *Answer: 


90. *Blockchain feature:*  

    A. Centralized  

    B. Immutable, distributed ledger  

    C. Easy to alter  

    D. Slow  

    *Answer: 



91. *Cybersecurity CIA triad:*  

    A. Control, Insight, Audit  

    B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability  

    C. Cost, Income, Assets  

    D. Check, Inspect, Approve  

    *Answer:


92. *Phishing is:*  

    A. Hardware failure  

    B. Social engineering via fake emails  

    C. Software bug  

    D. Network speed issue  

    *Answer


93. *Cloud computing benefit:*  

    A. High upfront cost  

    B. Scalability, pay-as-you-go  

    C. No internet needed  

    D. Less secure  

    *Answer


94. *Data governance includes:*  

    A. Data quality, security, privacy, ownership  

    B. Only backups  

    C. Only reporting  

    D. Hardware purchase  

    *Answer:


95. *Structured data example:*  

    A. Emails  

    B. Database table with rows/columns  

    C. Video  

    D. Social media posts  

    *Answer:


96. *Unstructured data example:*  

    A. Excel table  

    B. PDF contract, images, audio  

    C. GL account list  

    D. Inventory master  

    *Answer:


97. *Dashboard key feature:*  

    A. 100 pages of data  

    B. Visual, KPI, real-time, drill-down  

    C. Text only  

    D. Annual only  

    *Answer:


98. *IT General Controls include:*  

    A. Input validation  

    B. Access security, change management, backup  

    C. Sales order entry  

    D. Payroll calc  

    *Answer:


99. *Application controls include:*  

    A. Firewall  

    B. Input edit checks, batch totals, reasonableness checks  

    C. Physical security  

    D. Backup  

    *Answer


100. *Data mining is used to:*  

    A. Store data  

    B. Discover patterns/trends in large datasets  

    C. Delete data  

    D. Backup data  

    *Answer: 

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Monday, October 20, 2025

Question ⁉️ on Cost & Management Accounting

MCQ Questions ⁉️ on Cost & Management Accounting..Total MCQ 50 Time Allowed 60 minutes, Difficult level Moderate difficult ..ANSWERS ARE AT THE END.....

---


1. Which of the following best defines “cost”?


A. The price paid for acquiring goods only

B. The sacrifice made to obtain goods or services

C. The expenditure incurred to generate income only

D. The future economic benefit derived from an asset

Answer: B

Explanation: Cost is a sacrifice of resources to achieve a specific objective.



---


2. Which of the following is a “period cost”?


A. Direct material

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Office salaries

Answer: D

Explanation: Period costs are expensed in the period incurred, not inventoried.



---


3. Which classification of cost is most useful for decision-making?


A. Historical cost

B. Sunk cost

C. Relevant cost

D. Product cost

Answer: C

Explanation: Relevant costs affect future decisions; sunk costs are irrelevant.



---


4. Which cost is controllable at the production supervisor level?


A. Factory depreciation

B. Direct materials usage

C. Factory insurance

D. Building rent

Answer: B

Explanation: Supervisors can control material usage, not fixed costs.



---


5. Cost reduction aims to:


A. Achieve cost savings with no reduction in quality

B. Minimize all costs regardless of quality

C. Postpone expenditure

D. Reduce wages only

Answer: A



---


6. Cost control focuses on:


A. Setting cost targets

B. Ensuring costs do not exceed standards

C. Eliminating non-value activities

D. Both A and B

Answer: D



---


7. Cost tracing means:


A. Assigning direct costs directly to cost objects

B. Allocating indirect costs

C. Apportioning joint costs

D. None of these

Answer: A



---


8. Cost allocation means:


A. Tracing direct costs

B. Distributing indirect costs to cost objects

C. Measuring product efficiency

D. Applying standard cost

Answer: B



---


9. Which basis is most suitable for apportioning factory rent?


A. Floor area

B. Machine hours

C. Direct wages

D. Material usage

Answer: A



---


10. Reapportionment of overheads refers to:


A. Primary distribution

B. Transfer of service department costs to production departments

C. Cost tracing

D. None of these

Answer: B



---


11. When closing inventory is overvalued, profit will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Not affected

D. Cannot be determined

Answer: A



---


12. When closing inventory is undervalued, cost of goods sold will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Equal to opening stock

D. Not affected

Answer: A



---


13. Abnormal loss is treated as:


A. Included in cost of production

B. Transferred to costing profit and loss account

C. Shared by remaining units

D. Ignored

Answer: B



---


14. Which is the correct journal entry for recording completed production?


A. WIP A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

B. Finished Goods A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

C. Factory Overhead A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

D. Sales A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

Answer: B



---


15. When overheads are under-applied:


A. Actual < Applied

B. Actual > Applied

C. Standard = Applied

D. None of these

Answer: B



---


16. Over-applied overheads are adjusted by:


A. Increasing cost of goods sold

B. Decreasing cost of goods sold

C. Increasing WIP

D. Increasing expenses

Answer: B



---


17. Job costing is suitable for:


A. Continuous production

B. Mass production

C. Customized orders

D. Standardized units

Answer: C



---


18. Process costing is suitable for:


A. Custom-made goods

B. Batch manufacturing

C. Uniform continuous production

D. Contract works

Answer: C



---


19. The main difference between job and process costing is:


A. Type of cost center used

B. Nature of product

C. Accounting period

D. Cost sheet format

Answer: B



---


20. Joint cost is:


A. Cost after split-off point

B. Common cost incurred before products become separately identifiable

C. Variable cost only

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



---


21. Joint products are:


A. By-products with negligible value

B. Products of equal importance derived from same process

C. Scrap items

D. None

Answer: B



---


22. By-products are:


A. Main products

B. Low-value secondary products

C. Rejected units

D. Waste

Answer: B



---


23. Joint cost allocation using physical units method is based on:


A. Sales value

B. Output quantity

C. Net realizable value

D. None

Answer: B



---


24. Absorption costing includes:


A. Only variable manufacturing costs

B. All manufacturing costs (fixed + variable)

C. Only prime costs

D. Selling & admin expenses

Answer: B



---


25. Variable costing treats fixed manufacturing overhead as:


A. Product cost

B. Period cost

C. Prime cost

D. Conversion cost

Answer: B



---


26. In absorption costing, inventory valuation is:


A. Higher than variable costing when production > sales

B. Lower than variable costing when production > sales

C. Equal always

D. None

Answer: A



---


27. Budgetary slack refers to:


A. Underestimation of income or overestimation of costs

B. Accurate estimation

C. Tight budget

D. None

Answer: A



---


28. Principal budget factor means:


A. The key factor that limits organizational performance

B. The main source of income

C. The highest expenditure item

D. Budget controller

Answer: A



---


29. A static budget is:


A. Adjusted for activity level changes

B. Fixed at one level of activity

C. Always flexible

D. None

Answer: B



---


30. Flexible budget is:


A. Prepared for one level of activity

B. Prepared for different levels of activity

C. Historical

D. None

Answer: B



---


31. Material Cost Variance =


A. (Standard Price × Standard Quantity) – (Actual Price × Actual Quantity)

B. Standard Price × (Standard Quantity – Actual Quantity)

C. Actual Quantity × (Standard Price – Actual Price)

D. Both A and C

Answer: A



---


32. Labour Efficiency Variance =


A. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

B. (Actual Hours × Actual Rate)

C. (Actual Hours × Standard Rate) – (Standard Hours × Actual Rate)

D. None

Answer: A



---


33. Variable Overhead Spending Variance =


A. Actual Hours × (Standard Rate – Actual Rate)

B. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

C. Standard Rate × Actual Hours

D. None

Answer: A



---


34. Responsibility centers are classified as:


A. Cost, Revenue, Profit, and Investment centers

B. Functional and Operational centers

C. Departmental centers only

D. None

Answer: A



---


35. A profit center manager is responsible for:


A. Only cost

B. Only revenue

C. Both cost and revenue

D. Investment only

Answer: C



---


36. An investment center is evaluated on:


A. ROI or Residual Income

B. Cost Variance

C. Sales Margin

D. Revenue Variance

Answer: A



---


37. Which of the following is not a controllable cost?


A. Direct materials

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Indirect materials

Answer: C



---


38. Opportunity cost is:


A. Past cost

B. The benefit foregone by choosing one alternative

C. Fixed cost

D. Irrelevant for decision-making

Answer: B



---


39. Sunk cost is:


A. Future avoidable cost

B. Past cost not relevant to decisions

C. Variable cost

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



---


40. Conversion cost includes:


A. Direct labor + Overheads

B. Direct material + Direct labor

C. Direct material + Overheads

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


41. Prime cost =


A. Direct material + Direct labor

B. Direct labor + Factory overhead

C. Direct material + Factory overhead

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


42. Which cost is most useful for break-even analysis?


A. Sunk cost

B. Variable cost

C. Fixed cost

D. Total cost

Answer: B



---


43. Which variance shows the overall performance of material usage and price?


A. Material cost variance

B. Material mix variance

C. Material yield variance

D. Material efficiency variance

Answer: A



---


44. Labour rate variance shows difference due to:


A. Change in labor efficiency

B. Change in wage rate

C. Idle time

D. Material mix

Answer: B



---


45. Cost of abnormal gain is:


A. Credited to costing P&L

B. Debited to costing P&L

C. Included in process cost

D. None

Answer: A



---


46. Fixed overhead volume variance arises due to:


A. Difference between actual and standard hours

B. Change in efficiency

C. Change in capacity utilization

D. All of the above

Answer: D



---


47. In process costing, normal loss is valued at:


A. Cost price

B. Realizable value

C. Market price

D. Zero

Answer: B



---


48. Transfer price in responsibility accounting is:


A. The price charged for goods/services between divisions

B. Selling price to customer

C. Market price only

D. None

Answer: A



---


49. Marginal costing is most useful for:


A. Long-term investment

B. Short-term decision-making

C. Budget preparation only

D. Cost reduction

Answer: B



---


50. The main objective of cost accounting is:


A. Financial reporting

B. Cost ascertainment and control

C. Tax compliance

D. External audit

Answer: B

***********HERE IS ANSWERS****

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MCQ Questions ⁉️ on Cost & Management Accounting..Total MCQ 50 Time Allowed 60 minutes, Difficult level Moderate difficult 

---


1. Which of the following best defines “cost”?


A. The price paid for acquiring goods only

B. The sacrifice made to obtain goods or services

C. The expenditure incurred to generate income only

D. The future economic benefit derived from an asset

Answer: B

Explanation: Cost is a sacrifice of resources to achieve a specific objective.



---


2. Which of the following is a “period cost”?


A. Direct material

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Office salaries

Answer: D

Explanation: Period costs are expensed in the period incurred, not inventoried.



---


3. Which classification of cost is most useful for decision-making?


A. Historical cost

B. Sunk cost

C. Relevant cost

D. Product cost

Answer: C

Explanation: Relevant costs affect future decisions; sunk costs are irrelevant.



---


4. Which cost is controllable at the production supervisor level?


A. Factory depreciation

B. Direct materials usage

C. Factory insurance

D. Building rent

Answer: B

Explanation: Supervisors can control material usage, not fixed costs.



---


5. Cost reduction aims to:


A. Achieve cost savings with no reduction in quality

B. Minimize all costs regardless of quality

C. Postpone expenditure

D. Reduce wages only

Answer: A



---


6. Cost control focuses on:


A. Setting cost targets

B. Ensuring costs do not exceed standards

C. Eliminating non-value activities

D. Both A and B

Answer: D



---


7. Cost tracing means:


A. Assigning direct costs directly to cost objects

B. Allocating indirect costs

C. Apportioning joint costs

D. None of these

Answer: A



---


8. Cost allocation means:


A. Tracing direct costs

B. Distributing indirect costs to cost objects

C. Measuring product efficiency

D. Applying standard cost

Answer: B



---


9. Which basis is most suitable for apportioning factory rent?


A. Floor area

B. Machine hours

C. Direct wages

D. Material usage

Answer: A



---


10. Reapportionment of overheads refers to:


A. Primary distribution

B. Transfer of service department costs to production departments

C. Cost tracing

D. None of these

Answer: B



---


11. When closing inventory is overvalued, profit will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Not affected

D. Cannot be determined

Answer: A



---


12. When closing inventory is undervalued, cost of goods sold will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Equal to opening stock

D. Not affected

Answer: A



---


13. Abnormal loss is treated as:


A. Included in cost of production

B. Transferred to costing profit and loss account

C. Shared by remaining units

D. Ignored

Answer: B



---


14. Which is the correct journal entry for recording completed production?


A. WIP A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

B. Finished Goods A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

C. Factory Overhead A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

D. Sales A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

Answer: B



---


15. When overheads are under-applied:


A. Actual < Applied

B. Actual > Applied

C. Standard = Applied

D. None of these

Answer: B



---


16. Over-applied overheads are adjusted by:


A. Increasing cost of goods sold

B. Decreasing cost of goods sold

C. Increasing WIP

D. Increasing expenses

Answer: B



---


17. Job costing is suitable for:


A. Continuous production

B. Mass production

C. Customized orders

D. Standardized units

Answer: C



---


18. Process costing is suitable for:


A. Custom-made goods

B. Batch manufacturing

C. Uniform continuous production

D. Contract works

Answer: C



---


19. The main difference between job and process costing is:


A. Type of cost center used

B. Nature of product

C. Accounting period

D. Cost sheet format

Answer: B



---


20. Joint cost is:


A. Cost after split-off point

B. Common cost incurred before products become separately identifiable

C. Variable cost only

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



---


21. Joint products are:


A. By-products with negligible value

B. Products of equal importance derived from same process

C. Scrap items

D. None

Answer: B



---


22. By-products are:


A. Main products

B. Low-value secondary products

C. Rejected units

D. Waste

Answer: B



---


23. Joint cost allocation using physical units method is based on:


A. Sales value

B. Output quantity

C. Net realizable value

D. None

Answer: B



---


24. Absorption costing includes:


A. Only variable manufacturing costs

B. All manufacturing costs (fixed + variable)

C. Only prime costs

D. Selling & admin expenses

Answer: B



---


25. Variable costing treats fixed manufacturing overhead as:


A. Product cost

B. Period cost

C. Prime cost

D. Conversion cost

Answer: B



---


26. In absorption costing, inventory valuation is:


A. Higher than variable costing when production > sales

B. Lower than variable costing when production > sales

C. Equal always

D. None

Answer: A



---


27. Budgetary slack refers to:


A. Underestimation of income or overestimation of costs

B. Accurate estimation

C. Tight budget

D. None

Answer: A



---


28. Principal budget factor means:


A. The key factor that limits organizational performance

B. The main source of income

C. The highest expenditure item

D. Budget controller

Answer: A



---


29. A static budget is:


A. Adjusted for activity level changes

B. Fixed at one level of activity

C. Always flexible

D. None

Answer: B



---


30. Flexible budget is:


A. Prepared for one level of activity

B. Prepared for different levels of activity

C. Historical

D. None

Answer: B



---


31. Material Cost Variance =


A. (Standard Price × Standard Quantity) – (Actual Price × Actual Quantity)

B. Standard Price × (Standard Quantity – Actual Quantity)

C. Actual Quantity × (Standard Price – Actual Price)

D. Both A and C

Answer: A



---


32. Labour Efficiency Variance =


A. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

B. (Actual Hours × Actual Rate)

C. (Actual Hours × Standard Rate) – (Standard Hours × Actual Rate)

D. None

Answer: A



---


33. Variable Overhead Spending Variance =


A. Actual Hours × (Standard Rate – Actual Rate)

B. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

C. Standard Rate × Actual Hours

D. None

Answer: A



---


34. Responsibility centers are classified as:


A. Cost, Revenue, Profit, and Investment centers

B. Functional and Operational centers

C. Departmental centers only

D. None

Answer: A



---


35. A profit center manager is responsible for:


A. Only cost

B. Only revenue

C. Both cost and revenue

D. Investment only

Answer: C



---


36. An investment center is evaluated on:


A. ROI or Residual Income

B. Cost Variance

C. Sales Margin

D. Revenue Variance

Answer: A



---


37. Which of the following is not a controllable cost?


A. Direct materials

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Indirect materials

Answer: C



---


38. Opportunity cost is:


A. Past cost

B. The benefit foregone by choosing one alternative

C. Fixed cost

D. Irrelevant for decision-making

Answer: B



---


39. Sunk cost is:


A. Future avoidable cost

B. Past cost not relevant to decisions

C. Variable cost

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



---


40. Conversion cost includes:


A. Direct labor + Overheads

B. Direct material + Direct labor

C. Direct material + Overheads

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


41. Prime cost =


A. Direct material + Direct labor

B. Direct labor + Factory overhead

C. Direct material + Factory overhead

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


42. Which cost is most useful for break-even analysis?


A. Sunk cost

B. Variable cost

C. Fixed cost

D. Total cost

Answer: B



---


43. Which variance shows the overall performance of material usage and price?


A. Material cost variance

B. Material mix variance

C. Material yield variance

D. Material efficiency variance

Answer: A



---


44. Labour rate variance shows difference due to:


A. Change in labor efficiency

B. Change in wage rate

C. Idle time

D. Material mix

Answer: B



---


45. Cost of abnormal gain is:


A. Credited to costing P&L

B. Debited to costing P&L

C. Included in process cost

D. None

Answer: A



---


46. Fixed overhead volume variance arises due to:


A. Difference between actual and standard hours

B. Change in efficiency

C. Change in capacity utilization

D. All of the above

Answer: D



---


47. In process costing, normal loss is valued at:


A. Cost price

B. Realizable value

C. Market price

D. Zero

Answer: B



---


48. Transfer price in responsibility accounting is:


A. The price charged for goods/services between divisions

B. Selling price to customer

C. Market price only

D. None

Answer: A



---


49. Marginal costing is most useful for:


A. Long-term investment

B. Short-term decision-making

C. Budget preparation only

D. Cost reduction

Answer: B



---


50. The main objective of cost accounting is:


A. Financial reporting

B. Cost ascertainment and control

C. Tax compliance

D. External audit

Answer: B



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