Showing posts with label US CMA Part 1 exam. Show all posts
Showing posts with label US CMA Part 1 exam. Show all posts

Monday, November 24, 2025

50 Question ⁉️ with answers Compre mocktest

50 Scenario-Based MCQ Questions covering the listed topics from US CMA Part 1: depreciation, impairment, deferred tax, receivable age analysis, overhead allocations, variances, budgeting, segment reporting, ROI/RI, responsibility centers, risks, leverage, controls, analytics, learning curve, EMV, EVPI, etc.


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50 Scenario-Based MCQs

Depreciation & Impairment

1. A company purchased machinery for $300,000 with a useful life of 10 years and no salvage value. After 4 years, remaining useful life was revised downward to 3 more years. Straight-line method is used. What is the revised annual depreciation? A. $30,000
B. $50,000
C. $75,000
D. $60,000
Answer: 


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2. A cash-generating unit (CGU) has carrying value of $950,000. The recoverable amount (higher of fair value less cost to sell $700,000 OR value-in-use $750,000) is $750,000. What is the impairment loss? A. $950,000
B. $200,000
C. $750,000
D. $50,000
Answer: 


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Deferred Tax

3. A firm records accelerated depreciation for tax but straight-line for books. This temporary difference creates: A. Deferred tax liability
B. Deferred tax asset
C. Permanent tax difference
D. No tax impact
Answer: 


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Receivables Aging

4. 60-day overdue accounts total $80,000 with expected uncollectible rate 6%. What is estimated allowance? A. $4,800
B. $6,000
C. $3,600
D. $1,800
Answer: 


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Overhead Allocation

5. Step-down method first allocates service department S1 to S2 and production departments P1 & P2. If S1 cost = $100,000 and allocation percentages are S2 20%, P1 40%, P2 40%, how much is allocated to P1 in the first step? A. $20,000
B. $40,000
C. $50,000
D. $60,000
Answer: 


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6. Reciprocal method uses simultaneous equations to allocate service costs. This method is preferred because: A. It is simple to apply
B. It fully recognizes inter-service use
C. It uses arbitrary percentages
D. It ignores overhead sharing
Answer: 


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Over/Under-applied Overhead

7. Actual overhead = $520,000; applied OH = $500,000. Result? A. $20,000 overapplied
B. $20,000 underapplied
C. Balanced
D. Must be closed to COGM
Answer: 


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Capacity

8. Maximum capacity under ideal production with no downtime refers to: A. Normal capacity
B. Practical capacity
C. Theoretical capacity
D. Actual capacity
Answer: 


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Cash Flows & Budgeting

9. Depreciation is added back to Net income in operating cash flow because: A. It represents cash paid
B. It is a non-cash expense
C. It occurs only in investing
D. It is a financing item
Answer: 


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10. A company expects January Sales $200,000; 30% cash, 70% collected next month. Expected February cash receipts from January sales: A. $140,000
B. $200,000
C. $60,000
D. $100,000
Answer: 


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Raw Material Budget

11. Production requires 4 kg per unit. Expected production 10,000 units. RM opening stock 5,000 kg; closing desired 8,000 kg. Required purchase? A. 37,000 kg
B. 43,000 kg
C. 48,000 kg
D. 40,000 kg
Answer: 


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Flexible Budget & Variances

12. Actual output = 4,000 units; standard 1.5 hrs per unit; actual hours = 5,800. Labour efficiency variance at $20/hr? A. 20,000 U
B. 16,000 U
C. 20,000 F
D. 16,000 F
Answer: 


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13. Standard VOH = $6 per hr, actual hours = 7,200; standard hours allowed = 7,000. VOH efficiency variance? A. $1,200 U
B. $1,200 F
C. $600 F
D. $600 U
Answer: 


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14. Fixed OH spending variance occurs due to: A. Change in hours worked
B. Change in capacity
C. Change in actual FOH spending
D. Change in efficiency
Answer: 


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Segment Reporting / ROI / RI / Responsibility Centers

15. A division earns operating income $300,000, average assets $2,000,000. ROI? A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 30%
Answer: 


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16. RI with required return 12%? Income $300,000; assets $2M.
A. $60,000
B. $40,000
C. $70,000
D. $36,000
Answer: 


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17. A cost center is evaluated based on: A. Profit
B. Asset turnover
C. Cost control
D. ROI
Answer: 


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Risk / Controls / Ethics

18. Responsibility for managing operational risk belongs to: A. Internal audit
B. Line management
C. External auditors
D. Board
Answer: 


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19. Accepting tickets from vendor while selecting suppliers is: A. Stewardship
C. Benchmarking
D. Occupational fraud
Answer: 


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20. Inherent limitation of internal control example: A. Segregation of duties
B. Collusion
C. Authorization
D. Reconciliation
Answer: 


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Diseconomies of Scale

21. External diseconomies arise from: A. Poor coordination internally
B. High employee turnover
C. Higher industry-wide input cost
D. Machine breakdowns
Answer: 


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22. Not a BSC perspective: A. Customer
B. Learning & Growth
C. Competitor strategy
D. Financial
Answer: 


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Liquidity & Leverage

23. High debt-to-equity affects: A. Liquidity
B. Solvency
C. ROA
D. Sales growth
Answer: 


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Data Analytics / Integrity

24. Data integrity ensures: A. Speed of computing
B. Completeness, accuracy, consistency
C. Volume reduction
D. Confidentiality only
Answer: 


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Virus Types

25. A virus that disguises as normal software: A. Worm
C. Spyware
D. Ransomware
Answer: 


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Internal Controls

26. Example of control environment: A. Bank reconciliation
B. Management integrity & ethical tone
C. Password control
D. Purchase authorization
Answer: 


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27. Output control technique: A. Batch totals
B. Exception reports
C. Input validation
D. Log-in checks
Answer: 


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Visualization

28. Visual tool to show parts-to-whole: A. Scatter plot
B. Histogram
D. Control chart
Answer: 


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Correlation & Regression

29. r = 0.88 means: A. Weak positive relation
B. Strong positive relation
C. No relation
D. Perfect negative relation
Answer: 


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Learning Curve

30. 80% learning curve means: A. Avg time decreases 80% each batch
B. Each time unit reduces to 80% of previous
C. Labour cost increases 20%
D. Production output 80%
Answer: 


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Expected Monetary Value

31. EMV = Profit × Probability: Option A: $100k @ 40%, B: $80k @ 60%. Which chosen? A. A
B. B
C. Equal
D. Cannot decide
Answer: 


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EVPI

32. EV under certainty = 90k; EMV best alternative = 70k. EVPI? A. 20k
B. 30k
C. 70k
D. 80k
Answer: 


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Manufacturing Bottlenecks

33. A CNC machine with limited hours that constrains output is: A. Cost driver
B. Bottleneck resource
C. Joint product
D. Fixed input
Answer: 


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Additional 17 Question True or False:

34. Overapplied OH decreases COGS → Answer: 


35. Segment report based on management approach → Answer: 


36. Data analytics prevents rather than detects fraud → Answer: 


37. Sole focus on ROI can cause dysfunctional decisions → Answer: 


38. Benchmarking vs industry = competitive benchmarking


39. Financial leverage increases EPS variability


40. Operating leverage increases business risk


41. Internal control feature: reasonable assurance


42. Phishing is social engineering attack


43. Reciprocal method uses simultaneous equations


44. Adequate working capital avoids liquidity crisis


45. Contribution margin used in CVP analysis


46. Variable OH spending variance relates to rates


47. Efficiency variance relates to usage


48. Safety stock protects against uncertainty


49. Step-down partially recognizes service departments


50. Conflict of interest minimized via independent review


Answers.....

Below are 50 Scenario-Based MCQ Questions with Answers covering the listed topics from US CMA Part 1: depreciation, impairment, deferred tax, receivable age analysis, overhead allocations, variances, budgeting, segment reporting, ROI/RI, responsibility centers, risks, leverage, controls, analytics, learning curve, EMV, EVPI, etc.
 
50 Scenario-Based MCQs (with Answers & Explanations)
Depreciation & Impairment
1. A company purchased machinery for $300,000 with a useful life of 10 years and no salvage value. After 4 years, remaining useful life was revised downward to 3 more years. Straight-line method is used. What is the revised annual depreciation? A. $30,000
B. $50,000
C. $75,000
D. $60,000
Answer: C
Explanation: Initial dep = 300,000/10 = 30,000. Accum dep 4 years = 120,000. NBV = 180,000. Revised dep = 180,000/3 = 60,000.
 
2. A cash-generating unit (CGU) has carrying value of $950,000. The recoverable amount (higher of fair value less cost to sell $700,000 OR value-in-use $750,000) is $750,000. What is the impairment loss? A. $950,000
B. $200,000
C. $750,000
D. $50,000
Answer: B
 
Deferred Tax
3. A firm records accelerated depreciation for tax but straight-line for books. This temporary difference creates: A. Deferred tax liability
B. Deferred tax asset
C. Permanent tax difference
D. No tax impact
Answer: A
 
Receivables Aging
4. 60-day overdue accounts total $80,000 with expected uncollectible rate 6%. What is estimated allowance? A. $4,800
B. $6,000
C. $3,600
D. $1,800
Answer: A
 
Overhead Allocation
5. Step-down method first allocates service department S1 to S2 and production departments P1 & P2. If S1 cost = $100,000 and allocation percentages are S2 20%, P1 40%, P2 40%, how much is allocated to P1 in the first step? A. $20,000
B. $40,000
C. $50,000
D. $60,000
Answer: B
 
6. Reciprocal method uses simultaneous equations to allocate service costs. This method is preferred because: A. It is simple to apply
B. It fully recognizes inter-service use
C. It uses arbitrary percentages
D. It ignores overhead sharing
Answer: B
 
Over/Under-applied Overhead
7. Actual overhead = $520,000; applied OH = $500,000. Result? A. $20,000 overapplied
B. $20,000 underapplied
C. Balanced
D. Must be closed to COGM
Answer: B
 
Capacity
8. Maximum capacity under ideal production with no downtime refers to: A. Normal capacity
B. Practical capacity
C. Theoretical capacity
D. Actual capacity
Answer: C
 
Cash Flows & Budgeting
9. Depreciation is added back to Net income in operating cash flow because: A. It represents cash paid
B. It is a non-cash expense
C. It occurs only in investing
D. It is a financing item
Answer: B
 
10. A company expects January Sales $200,000; 30% cash, 70% collected next month. Expected February cash receipts from January sales: A. $140,000
B. $200,000
C. $60,000
D. $100,000
Answer: A
 
Raw Material Budget
11. Production requires 4 kg per unit. Expected production 10,000 units. RM opening stock 5,000 kg; closing desired 8,000 kg. Required purchase? A. 37,000 kg
B. 43,000 kg
C. 48,000 kg
D. 40,000 kg
Answer: B
(10,000×4 + 8,000 – 5,000 = 43,000)
 
Flexible Budget & Variances
12. Actual output = 4,000 units; standard 1.5 hrs per unit; actual hours = 5,800. Labour efficiency variance at $20/hr? A. 20,000 U
B. 16,000 U
C. 20,000 F
D. 16,000 F
Answer: B
(SH = 6,000; AH = 5,800 → 200 F × $20 = 4,000 F? Wait) Correction: (6000-5800)*20 = 4,000 F (Correcting key) → Answer corrected: C
 
13. Standard VOH = $6 per hr, actual hours = 7,200; standard hours allowed = 7,000. VOH efficiency variance? A. $1,200 U
B. $1,200 F
C. $600 F
D. $600 U
Answer: A
 
14. Fixed OH spending variance occurs due to: A. Change in hours worked
B. Change in capacity
C. Change in actual FOH spending
D. Change in efficiency
Answer: C
 
Segment Reporting / ROI / RI / Responsibility Centers
15. A division earns operating income $300,000, average assets $2,000,000. ROI? A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 30%
Answer: B
 
16. RI with required return 12%? Income $300,000; assets $2M.
A. $60,000
B. $40,000
C. $70,000
D. $36,000
Answer: A
 
17. A cost center is evaluated based on: A. Profit
B. Asset turnover
C. Cost control
D. ROI
Answer: C
 
Risk / Controls / Ethics
18. Responsibility for managing operational risk belongs to: A. Internal audit
B. Line management
C. External auditors
D. Board
Answer: B
 
19. Accepting tickets from vendor while selecting suppliers is: A. Stewardship
B. Conflict of interest
C. Benchmarking
D. Occupational fraud
Answer: B
 
20. Inherent limitation of internal control example: A. Segregation of duties
B. Collusion
C. Authorization
D. Reconciliation
Answer: B
 
Diseconomies of Scale
21. External diseconomies arise from: A. Poor coordination internally
B. High employee turnover
C. Higher industry-wide input cost
D. Machine breakdowns
Answer: C
 
Balanced Scorecard
22. Not a BSC perspective: A. Customer
B. Learning & Growth
C. Competitor strategy
D. Financial
Answer: C
 
Liquidity & Leverage
23. High debt-to-equity affects: A. Liquidity
B. Solvency
C. ROA
D. Sales growth
Answer: B
 
Data Analytics / Integrity
24. Data integrity ensures: A. Speed of computing
B. Completeness, accuracy, consistency
C. Volume reduction
D. Confidentiality only
Answer: B
 
Virus Types
25. A virus that disguises as normal software: A. Worm
B. Trojan horse
C. Spyware
D. Ransomware
Answer: B
 
Internal Controls
26. Example of control environment: A. Bank reconciliation
B. Management integrity & ethical tone
C. Password control
D. Purchase authorization
Answer: B
 
27. Output control technique: A. Batch totals
B. Exception reports
C. Input validation
D. Log-in checks
Answer: B
 
Visualization
28. Visual tool to show parts-to-whole: A. Scatter plot
B. Histogram
C. Pie chart
D. Control chart
Answer: C
 
Correlation & Regression
29. r = 0.88 means: A. Weak positive relation
B. Strong positive relation
C. No relation
D. Perfect negative relation
Answer: B
 
Learning Curve
30. 80% learning curve means: A. Avg time decreases 80% each batch
B. Each time unit reduces to 80% of previous
C. Labour cost increases 20%
D. Production output 80%
Answer: B
 
Expected Monetary Value
31. EMV = Profit × Probability: Option A: $100k @ 40%, B: $80k @ 60%. Which chosen? A. A
B. B
C. Equal
D. Cannot decide
Answer: B
(A=40k, B=48k)
 
EVPI
32. EV under certainty = 90k; EMV best alternative = 70k. EVPI? A. 20k
B. 30k
C. 70k
D. 80k
Answer: A
 
Manufacturing Bottlenecks
33. A CNC machine with limited hours that constrains output is: A. Cost driver
B. Bottleneck resource
C. Joint product
D. Fixed input
Answer: B
 
Additional 17 True or False...
34. Overapplied OH decreases COGS → Answer: True
35. Segment report based on management approach → Answer: True
36. Data analytics prevents rather than detects fraud → Answer: False
37. Sole focus on ROI can cause dysfunctional decisions → Answer: True
38. Benchmarking vs industry = competitive benchmarking
39. Financial leverage increases EPS variability
40. Operating leverage increases business risk
41. Internal control feature: reasonable assurance
42. Phishing is social engineering attack
43. Reciprocal method uses simultaneous equations
44. Adequate working capital avoids liquidity crisis
45. Contribution margin used in CVP analysis
46. Variable OH spending variance relates to rates
47. Efficiency variance relates to usage
48. Safety stock protects against uncertainty
49. Step-down partially recognizes service departments
50. Conflict of interest minimized via independent review

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Monday, October 20, 2025

Question ⁉️ on Cost & Management Accounting

MCQ Questions ⁉️ on Cost & Management Accounting..Total MCQ 50 Time Allowed 60 minutes, Difficult level Moderate difficult ..ANSWERS ARE AT THE END.....

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1. Which of the following best defines “cost”?


A. The price paid for acquiring goods only

B. The sacrifice made to obtain goods or services

C. The expenditure incurred to generate income only

D. The future economic benefit derived from an asset

Answer: B

Explanation: Cost is a sacrifice of resources to achieve a specific objective.



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2. Which of the following is a “period cost”?


A. Direct material

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Office salaries

Answer: D

Explanation: Period costs are expensed in the period incurred, not inventoried.



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3. Which classification of cost is most useful for decision-making?


A. Historical cost

B. Sunk cost

C. Relevant cost

D. Product cost

Answer: C

Explanation: Relevant costs affect future decisions; sunk costs are irrelevant.



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4. Which cost is controllable at the production supervisor level?


A. Factory depreciation

B. Direct materials usage

C. Factory insurance

D. Building rent

Answer: B

Explanation: Supervisors can control material usage, not fixed costs.



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5. Cost reduction aims to:


A. Achieve cost savings with no reduction in quality

B. Minimize all costs regardless of quality

C. Postpone expenditure

D. Reduce wages only

Answer: A



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6. Cost control focuses on:


A. Setting cost targets

B. Ensuring costs do not exceed standards

C. Eliminating non-value activities

D. Both A and B

Answer: D



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7. Cost tracing means:


A. Assigning direct costs directly to cost objects

B. Allocating indirect costs

C. Apportioning joint costs

D. None of these

Answer: A



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8. Cost allocation means:


A. Tracing direct costs

B. Distributing indirect costs to cost objects

C. Measuring product efficiency

D. Applying standard cost

Answer: B



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9. Which basis is most suitable for apportioning factory rent?


A. Floor area

B. Machine hours

C. Direct wages

D. Material usage

Answer: A



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10. Reapportionment of overheads refers to:


A. Primary distribution

B. Transfer of service department costs to production departments

C. Cost tracing

D. None of these

Answer: B



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11. When closing inventory is overvalued, profit will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Not affected

D. Cannot be determined

Answer: A



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12. When closing inventory is undervalued, cost of goods sold will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Equal to opening stock

D. Not affected

Answer: A



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13. Abnormal loss is treated as:


A. Included in cost of production

B. Transferred to costing profit and loss account

C. Shared by remaining units

D. Ignored

Answer: B



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14. Which is the correct journal entry for recording completed production?


A. WIP A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

B. Finished Goods A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

C. Factory Overhead A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

D. Sales A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

Answer: B



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15. When overheads are under-applied:


A. Actual < Applied

B. Actual > Applied

C. Standard = Applied

D. None of these

Answer: B



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16. Over-applied overheads are adjusted by:


A. Increasing cost of goods sold

B. Decreasing cost of goods sold

C. Increasing WIP

D. Increasing expenses

Answer: B



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17. Job costing is suitable for:


A. Continuous production

B. Mass production

C. Customized orders

D. Standardized units

Answer: C



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18. Process costing is suitable for:


A. Custom-made goods

B. Batch manufacturing

C. Uniform continuous production

D. Contract works

Answer: C



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19. The main difference between job and process costing is:


A. Type of cost center used

B. Nature of product

C. Accounting period

D. Cost sheet format

Answer: B



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20. Joint cost is:


A. Cost after split-off point

B. Common cost incurred before products become separately identifiable

C. Variable cost only

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



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21. Joint products are:


A. By-products with negligible value

B. Products of equal importance derived from same process

C. Scrap items

D. None

Answer: B



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22. By-products are:


A. Main products

B. Low-value secondary products

C. Rejected units

D. Waste

Answer: B



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23. Joint cost allocation using physical units method is based on:


A. Sales value

B. Output quantity

C. Net realizable value

D. None

Answer: B



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24. Absorption costing includes:


A. Only variable manufacturing costs

B. All manufacturing costs (fixed + variable)

C. Only prime costs

D. Selling & admin expenses

Answer: B



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25. Variable costing treats fixed manufacturing overhead as:


A. Product cost

B. Period cost

C. Prime cost

D. Conversion cost

Answer: B



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26. In absorption costing, inventory valuation is:


A. Higher than variable costing when production > sales

B. Lower than variable costing when production > sales

C. Equal always

D. None

Answer: A



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27. Budgetary slack refers to:


A. Underestimation of income or overestimation of costs

B. Accurate estimation

C. Tight budget

D. None

Answer: A



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28. Principal budget factor means:


A. The key factor that limits organizational performance

B. The main source of income

C. The highest expenditure item

D. Budget controller

Answer: A



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29. A static budget is:


A. Adjusted for activity level changes

B. Fixed at one level of activity

C. Always flexible

D. None

Answer: B



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30. Flexible budget is:


A. Prepared for one level of activity

B. Prepared for different levels of activity

C. Historical

D. None

Answer: B



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31. Material Cost Variance =


A. (Standard Price × Standard Quantity) – (Actual Price × Actual Quantity)

B. Standard Price × (Standard Quantity – Actual Quantity)

C. Actual Quantity × (Standard Price – Actual Price)

D. Both A and C

Answer: A



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32. Labour Efficiency Variance =


A. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

B. (Actual Hours × Actual Rate)

C. (Actual Hours × Standard Rate) – (Standard Hours × Actual Rate)

D. None

Answer: A



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33. Variable Overhead Spending Variance =


A. Actual Hours × (Standard Rate – Actual Rate)

B. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

C. Standard Rate × Actual Hours

D. None

Answer: A



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34. Responsibility centers are classified as:


A. Cost, Revenue, Profit, and Investment centers

B. Functional and Operational centers

C. Departmental centers only

D. None

Answer: A



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35. A profit center manager is responsible for:


A. Only cost

B. Only revenue

C. Both cost and revenue

D. Investment only

Answer: C



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36. An investment center is evaluated on:


A. ROI or Residual Income

B. Cost Variance

C. Sales Margin

D. Revenue Variance

Answer: A



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37. Which of the following is not a controllable cost?


A. Direct materials

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Indirect materials

Answer: C



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38. Opportunity cost is:


A. Past cost

B. The benefit foregone by choosing one alternative

C. Fixed cost

D. Irrelevant for decision-making

Answer: B



---


39. Sunk cost is:


A. Future avoidable cost

B. Past cost not relevant to decisions

C. Variable cost

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



---


40. Conversion cost includes:


A. Direct labor + Overheads

B. Direct material + Direct labor

C. Direct material + Overheads

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


41. Prime cost =


A. Direct material + Direct labor

B. Direct labor + Factory overhead

C. Direct material + Factory overhead

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


42. Which cost is most useful for break-even analysis?


A. Sunk cost

B. Variable cost

C. Fixed cost

D. Total cost

Answer: B



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43. Which variance shows the overall performance of material usage and price?


A. Material cost variance

B. Material mix variance

C. Material yield variance

D. Material efficiency variance

Answer: A



---


44. Labour rate variance shows difference due to:


A. Change in labor efficiency

B. Change in wage rate

C. Idle time

D. Material mix

Answer: B



---


45. Cost of abnormal gain is:


A. Credited to costing P&L

B. Debited to costing P&L

C. Included in process cost

D. None

Answer: A



---


46. Fixed overhead volume variance arises due to:


A. Difference between actual and standard hours

B. Change in efficiency

C. Change in capacity utilization

D. All of the above

Answer: D



---


47. In process costing, normal loss is valued at:


A. Cost price

B. Realizable value

C. Market price

D. Zero

Answer: B



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48. Transfer price in responsibility accounting is:


A. The price charged for goods/services between divisions

B. Selling price to customer

C. Market price only

D. None

Answer: A



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49. Marginal costing is most useful for:


A. Long-term investment

B. Short-term decision-making

C. Budget preparation only

D. Cost reduction

Answer: B



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50. The main objective of cost accounting is:


A. Financial reporting

B. Cost ascertainment and control

C. Tax compliance

D. External audit

Answer: B

***********HERE IS ANSWERS****

Thanks... you solve 50 MCQ Questions in 6 minutes..here is the answers.. please check yourself write ✍️ your performance..how many questions attempted correctly?



MCQ Questions ⁉️ on Cost & Management Accounting..Total MCQ 50 Time Allowed 60 minutes, Difficult level Moderate difficult 

---


1. Which of the following best defines “cost”?


A. The price paid for acquiring goods only

B. The sacrifice made to obtain goods or services

C. The expenditure incurred to generate income only

D. The future economic benefit derived from an asset

Answer: B

Explanation: Cost is a sacrifice of resources to achieve a specific objective.



---


2. Which of the following is a “period cost”?


A. Direct material

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Office salaries

Answer: D

Explanation: Period costs are expensed in the period incurred, not inventoried.



---


3. Which classification of cost is most useful for decision-making?


A. Historical cost

B. Sunk cost

C. Relevant cost

D. Product cost

Answer: C

Explanation: Relevant costs affect future decisions; sunk costs are irrelevant.



---


4. Which cost is controllable at the production supervisor level?


A. Factory depreciation

B. Direct materials usage

C. Factory insurance

D. Building rent

Answer: B

Explanation: Supervisors can control material usage, not fixed costs.



---


5. Cost reduction aims to:


A. Achieve cost savings with no reduction in quality

B. Minimize all costs regardless of quality

C. Postpone expenditure

D. Reduce wages only

Answer: A



---


6. Cost control focuses on:


A. Setting cost targets

B. Ensuring costs do not exceed standards

C. Eliminating non-value activities

D. Both A and B

Answer: D



---


7. Cost tracing means:


A. Assigning direct costs directly to cost objects

B. Allocating indirect costs

C. Apportioning joint costs

D. None of these

Answer: A



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8. Cost allocation means:


A. Tracing direct costs

B. Distributing indirect costs to cost objects

C. Measuring product efficiency

D. Applying standard cost

Answer: B



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9. Which basis is most suitable for apportioning factory rent?


A. Floor area

B. Machine hours

C. Direct wages

D. Material usage

Answer: A



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10. Reapportionment of overheads refers to:


A. Primary distribution

B. Transfer of service department costs to production departments

C. Cost tracing

D. None of these

Answer: B



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11. When closing inventory is overvalued, profit will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Not affected

D. Cannot be determined

Answer: A



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12. When closing inventory is undervalued, cost of goods sold will be:


A. Overstated

B. Understated

C. Equal to opening stock

D. Not affected

Answer: A



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13. Abnormal loss is treated as:


A. Included in cost of production

B. Transferred to costing profit and loss account

C. Shared by remaining units

D. Ignored

Answer: B



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14. Which is the correct journal entry for recording completed production?


A. WIP A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

B. Finished Goods A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

C. Factory Overhead A/c Dr → WIP A/c Cr

D. Sales A/c Dr → Finished Goods A/c Cr

Answer: B



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15. When overheads are under-applied:


A. Actual < Applied

B. Actual > Applied

C. Standard = Applied

D. None of these

Answer: B



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16. Over-applied overheads are adjusted by:


A. Increasing cost of goods sold

B. Decreasing cost of goods sold

C. Increasing WIP

D. Increasing expenses

Answer: B



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17. Job costing is suitable for:


A. Continuous production

B. Mass production

C. Customized orders

D. Standardized units

Answer: C



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18. Process costing is suitable for:


A. Custom-made goods

B. Batch manufacturing

C. Uniform continuous production

D. Contract works

Answer: C



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19. The main difference between job and process costing is:


A. Type of cost center used

B. Nature of product

C. Accounting period

D. Cost sheet format

Answer: B



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20. Joint cost is:


A. Cost after split-off point

B. Common cost incurred before products become separately identifiable

C. Variable cost only

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



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21. Joint products are:


A. By-products with negligible value

B. Products of equal importance derived from same process

C. Scrap items

D. None

Answer: B



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22. By-products are:


A. Main products

B. Low-value secondary products

C. Rejected units

D. Waste

Answer: B



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23. Joint cost allocation using physical units method is based on:


A. Sales value

B. Output quantity

C. Net realizable value

D. None

Answer: B



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24. Absorption costing includes:


A. Only variable manufacturing costs

B. All manufacturing costs (fixed + variable)

C. Only prime costs

D. Selling & admin expenses

Answer: B



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25. Variable costing treats fixed manufacturing overhead as:


A. Product cost

B. Period cost

C. Prime cost

D. Conversion cost

Answer: B



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26. In absorption costing, inventory valuation is:


A. Higher than variable costing when production > sales

B. Lower than variable costing when production > sales

C. Equal always

D. None

Answer: A



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27. Budgetary slack refers to:


A. Underestimation of income or overestimation of costs

B. Accurate estimation

C. Tight budget

D. None

Answer: A



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28. Principal budget factor means:


A. The key factor that limits organizational performance

B. The main source of income

C. The highest expenditure item

D. Budget controller

Answer: A



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29. A static budget is:


A. Adjusted for activity level changes

B. Fixed at one level of activity

C. Always flexible

D. None

Answer: B



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30. Flexible budget is:


A. Prepared for one level of activity

B. Prepared for different levels of activity

C. Historical

D. None

Answer: B



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31. Material Cost Variance =


A. (Standard Price × Standard Quantity) – (Actual Price × Actual Quantity)

B. Standard Price × (Standard Quantity – Actual Quantity)

C. Actual Quantity × (Standard Price – Actual Price)

D. Both A and C

Answer: A



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32. Labour Efficiency Variance =


A. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

B. (Actual Hours × Actual Rate)

C. (Actual Hours × Standard Rate) – (Standard Hours × Actual Rate)

D. None

Answer: A



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33. Variable Overhead Spending Variance =


A. Actual Hours × (Standard Rate – Actual Rate)

B. (Standard Hours – Actual Hours) × Standard Rate

C. Standard Rate × Actual Hours

D. None

Answer: A



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34. Responsibility centers are classified as:


A. Cost, Revenue, Profit, and Investment centers

B. Functional and Operational centers

C. Departmental centers only

D. None

Answer: A



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35. A profit center manager is responsible for:


A. Only cost

B. Only revenue

C. Both cost and revenue

D. Investment only

Answer: C



---


36. An investment center is evaluated on:


A. ROI or Residual Income

B. Cost Variance

C. Sales Margin

D. Revenue Variance

Answer: A



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37. Which of the following is not a controllable cost?


A. Direct materials

B. Direct labor

C. Factory rent

D. Indirect materials

Answer: C



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38. Opportunity cost is:


A. Past cost

B. The benefit foregone by choosing one alternative

C. Fixed cost

D. Irrelevant for decision-making

Answer: B



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39. Sunk cost is:


A. Future avoidable cost

B. Past cost not relevant to decisions

C. Variable cost

D. Fixed cost

Answer: B



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40. Conversion cost includes:


A. Direct labor + Overheads

B. Direct material + Direct labor

C. Direct material + Overheads

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



---


41. Prime cost =


A. Direct material + Direct labor

B. Direct labor + Factory overhead

C. Direct material + Factory overhead

D. All manufacturing costs

Answer: A



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42. Which cost is most useful for break-even analysis?


A. Sunk cost

B. Variable cost

C. Fixed cost

D. Total cost

Answer: B



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43. Which variance shows the overall performance of material usage and price?


A. Material cost variance

B. Material mix variance

C. Material yield variance

D. Material efficiency variance

Answer: A



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44. Labour rate variance shows difference due to:


A. Change in labor efficiency

B. Change in wage rate

C. Idle time

D. Material mix

Answer: B



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45. Cost of abnormal gain is:


A. Credited to costing P&L

B. Debited to costing P&L

C. Included in process cost

D. None

Answer: A



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46. Fixed overhead volume variance arises due to:


A. Difference between actual and standard hours

B. Change in efficiency

C. Change in capacity utilization

D. All of the above

Answer: D



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47. In process costing, normal loss is valued at:


A. Cost price

B. Realizable value

C. Market price

D. Zero

Answer: B



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48. Transfer price in responsibility accounting is:


A. The price charged for goods/services between divisions

B. Selling price to customer

C. Market price only

D. None

Answer: A



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49. Marginal costing is most useful for:


A. Long-term investment

B. Short-term decision-making

C. Budget preparation only

D. Cost reduction

Answer: B



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50. The main objective of cost accounting is:


A. Financial reporting

B. Cost ascertainment and control

C. Tax compliance

D. External audit

Answer: B



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